We have the equation $A=B^2$ where
$$
B=\left(\begin{array}{cc}1&1\\2&1\end{array}\right).
$$
Let
$$
B^n=\left(\begin{array}{cc}x_n&y_n\\z_n&x_n\end{array}\right).
$$
As $\det B^n=(-1)^n$, we know that $x_n^2=z_ny_n+(-1)^n.$ An easy induction
also proves that $z_n=2y_n$ for all $n$.
Assume first that $n$ is odd. I claim that $2x_n$ then divides all the entries of $A^n-I$. This is because
$$
A^n=(B^n)^2=
\left(\begin{array}{cc}x_n^2+y_nz_n&2x_ny_n\\ 2x_nz_n&x_n^2+y_nz_n\end{array}\right)
$$
Here $y_nz_n=x_n^2+1$, so we get that
$$
A^n-I=\left(\begin{array}{cc}2x_n^2&2x_ny_n\\ 2x_nz_n&2x_n^2\end{array}\right)
$$
proving the claim.
Assume then that $n$ is even. This time I claim that all the entries of $A^n-I$ are divisible by $2y_n$. For even $n$ we have $y_nz_n=x_n^2-1$, so the above calculation shows that
$$
A^n-I=\left(\begin{array}{cc}2y_nz_n&2x_ny_n\\ 2x_nz_n&2y_nz_n\end{array}\right)
$$
proving the claim.
It is easy to prove that both $x_n,y_n\to\infty$ as $n\to\infty$. Your claim follows from this.