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While comparing the definition of a topological space among books, I found one book [1] whose definition seems to differ from the others. Here it is:

Definition: Let $X$ be a non-empty set. A class (defined by the book as a "set of sets") $T$ of subsets of $X$ is called a topology on $X$ if it satisfies the following two conditions:

  1. The union of every class of sets in $T$ is a set in $T$
  2. The intersection of every finite class of sets in $T$ is a set in $T$

This definition omits the usually present condition that the empty set and $X$ itself must be in $T$. It also adds the condition that $X$ is not empty. Shortly after this definition, the author writes:

We observe that the empty set and the full space are always open sets in every topological spaces, since they are the union and intersection of the empty class of sets, which is a subclass of every topology.

Which doesn't make sense to me, given the definition.

  1. <deleted>
  2. Why is $X$ in $T$?
  3. Why does $X$ need to be non-empty?

Update (Much later):

I discovered that the book adopts a convention by which all sets under discussion are restricted to $X$. Not realizing/mentioning that was entirely my fault.

[1] George F. Simmons - Introduction to Topology and Modern Analysis, pp. 92

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    Maybe they're taking the convention that the empty union is $\varnothing$ and the empty intersection is $X$. – Aryaman Maithani Jul 05 '21 at 13:03
  • Where did you find this? Can you mention the source? – Infinity_hunter Jul 05 '21 at 13:05
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    @AryamanMaithani The fact that $\bigcup\emptyset=\emptyset$ is not a "convention", it's a trivial consequence of the definition of $\bigcup$. Otoh $\bigcap\emptyset$ is undefined in standard set theory, but if you look at what the definition would say if it were in force you see that $\bigcap\emptyset$ should be the non-existent set of all sets. So since $X$ is a sort of "universal set" here, the convention $\bigcap\emptyset=X$ makes perfect sense. – David C. Ullrich Jul 05 '21 at 13:07
  • A practical remark about question 3: an empty topological space $X$ is rather uninteresting to study. – Nap D. Lover Jul 05 '21 at 13:13
  • The requirement that $X$ is nonempty is nonstandard and there is absolutely no good reason for it. – Eric Wofsey Jul 05 '21 at 13:32
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    Re empty intersection: The sets of T are viewed as subsets of X, an intersection of subsets may be defined as $$\bigcap_{i \in I } A_i = {x\in X \mid x \in A_i \forall i \in I }$$ but I‘m not sure if this is the „correct“ definition… – s.harp Jul 05 '21 at 13:38
  • Question 1:The empty class is a class of sets in $T$, so its union, $\varnothing$ is an element of $T$ by item 1 of the definition. Question 2: Furthermore, the empty class is finite, so its intersection, $X$ is in $T$ by item 2. Question 3: I see no good reason for requiring $X\neq\varnothing$. – Andreas Blass Jul 05 '21 at 13:53
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    I wrote a blog article on this topic a year or two ago. In particular I pointed out that General Topology (Kelley 1955) has substantially the same definition of a topology as the one you give, and discuss whether the “missing” properties can be recovered. The issue is unexpectedly subtle. – MJD Jul 05 '21 at 16:52
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  • IMO if a book gives this definition without explaining why it implies that the empty set and the whole space are open, then it is not a very good book. – Cronus Jul 06 '21 at 13:06
  • @DavidC.Ullrich In a topological space $(X,T)$, the fact that $\bigcap \emptyset = X$ is not a "convention" either, but a consequence of the definition of $\bigcap$. – user019828 Jul 07 '21 at 15:21
  • @user019828 I don't see how, The definition would say that $\forall x: x\in\bigcap\emptyset$, while of course there is no set that contains everything; the notion that we restrict to elements of $X$, sothat $X$ is"everything", is a convention. – David C. Ullrich Jul 08 '21 at 12:29
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    @DavidC.Ullrich, I struggled to understand your point, but in the end it was helpful. You're right. It is a convention, and the book states its use of it earlier on. I've updated my answer below. Thank you. – user019828 Jul 13 '21 at 21:21

3 Answers3

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When dealing with collections of subsets of a common superset $\Omega$, intersections and unions are usually defined as follows:

Let $\mathcal B$ be a collection of subsets of $\Omega$, then \begin{align} \bigcup \mathcal B &:= \bigcup_{A\in\mathcal B} A := \left\{\, x\in\Omega \,\middle|\, \exists A\in\mathcal B\colon x\in A \,\right\} \subseteq \Omega, \\ \bigcap \mathcal B &:= \bigcap_{A\in\mathcal B} A := \left\{\, x\in\Omega \,\middle|\, \forall A\in\mathcal B\colon x\in A \,\right\} \subseteq \Omega. \end{align} For $\mathcal B=\varnothing$ this yields $\bigcup \mathcal B = \varnothing$ and $\bigcap \mathcal B = \Omega$.

For $\mathcal B\neq\varnothing$ the definitions above don't depend on $\Omega$ and agree with the usual intersections and unions of collections of sets. Even the union $\bigcup \varnothing$ doesn't depend on $\Omega$, the only problem is the empty intersection $\bigcap \varnothing=\Omega$, which is a very useful definition in the context of a common superset.

You can think of $\varnothing$ as the identity element with respect to taking unions and of $\Omega$ as the identity element with respect to taking intersections of subsets of $\Omega$. This makes the empty union and empty intersection analogous to the empty sum $\sum_{a\in\varnothing} a = 0$ and the empty product $\prod_{a\in\varnothing} a = 1$, which are the identity elements of addition and multiplication, respectively.

In the case of a topology, $\Omega=X$ and $\tau$ is a collection of subsets of $X$. Now $\varnothing\subseteq \tau$ is vacuously true, since every element of $\varnothing$ is an element of $\tau$: there is no element in $\varnothing$ that could serve as a counter example. Hence, the two axioms imply $\bigcup\varnothing = \varnothing\in\tau$ and $\bigcap \varnothing= X\in\tau$.

Requiring $X$ to be non-empty is indeed unusual, maybe the author was too lazy to exclude the empty space from some of the theorems.

Christoph
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  • The definition of intersection of a class is not defined this way (I realized much too late). However, the book explicitly adopts the convention that all sets under discussion include only elements from X, so ultimately your answer is correct. I added some discussion/references on this to my own answer, since I so readily stumbled on this point. – user019828 Jul 13 '21 at 21:25
  • you might mention why these definitions for $\emptyset$ are a good idea. For example you mention you get the identity for this or that operation; why "should" it be the idenity? Ans: So we have $\bigcap(A\cup B) = \bigcap(A)\cap\bigcap(B)$.... – David C. Ullrich Jul 15 '21 at 00:08
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Thanks for all the comments. I've tried (Edit: twice now) to collect them all into a correct, full answer.

Let $(X,T)$ be a topological space. i.e. $T$ is a sets of subsets of $X$. Then the conditions can be written equivalently as:

  • (c1-alt): The union of every subclass of T is a set in T.
  • (c2-alt): The intersection of every finite subclass of T is a set in T.

Then

  • (a1): The empty class is a subclass of T because it is (vacuously) true that every set in it belongs to T. Therefore condition (c1-alt) applies and thus the union of the empty class, which is the empty set, is in T.

  • (a2): Updated: (Thanks to helpful comments to the OP).

In axiomatic set theory, intersection of class is defined only for non-empty classes [1] [2]. So when the book suggests that "the intersection of the empty class is the entire class", there appears to be a problem.

However, in the first chapter the author writes (which I overlooked, to my detriment) that

There are certain logical difficulties which arise in the foundations of the theory of sets (i.e. russel's paradox).

We avoid these difficulties by assuming that each discussion in which a number of sets are involved takes place in the context of a single fixed set. This set is called the universal set. it is denoted by U in this section and the next, and every set mentioned is assumed to consist of elements in U.

Having adopted this convention, the definition of class intersection now becomes $$\bigcap S=\{x\in X \ \vert\ \forall A \in S: x \in A\}. $$ That $X \in T$ then follows from this definition since the predicate is vacuously true, and set-theoretic landmines are avoided since we're not in danger of "constructing" the set of all sets.

  1. (a3): The author chose to exclude a trivial case from consideration. That's ok for this specific book, but doesn't agree with the "common" definition which includes the case of $X=\emptyset$.

[1] Paul Halmos, Naive set theory, Springer-Verlag 1974, pp15.

[2] Wikipedia:Axiom_of_union#Relation_to_Intersection

  • Good summary, but I think point 3 needs some more research. From a random sample of books on my shelves, I see an even split between requiring topological spaces to be non-empty and allowing them to be empty. (But 1-1 isn't a very representative sample!) – Rob Arthan Jul 06 '21 at 00:44
  • I'm sure simmons isn't a unique specimen and you may be confirming that. Perhaps there's also a time drift in preferred exposition (simmons is rather old). However, my own survey yielded 5-1 (excluding wikipedia) which seemed enough to conclude the distribution skews heavily towards one over the other. – user019828 Jul 06 '21 at 11:45
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  1. I think the trick here is how the author talks about classes of sets. Since the union of every class of sets must be in $T$, then the union of an empty class of sets must be in $T$; therefore, $\emptyset \in T$.
  2. My initial thought was that the union of all sets in $T$ must be $X$, therefore $X \in T$. But if you consider $T = \{\emptyset, \{1\}, \{1, 2\}\}$, then the union of all open sets that are not $X$ is not $X$.
  3. In the standard definition of a topology we make sure that $\emptyset, X \in T$, so we already know it's not empty. Here we need to make it clear.
tempate
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  • (3) In the standard definition, aren't $\emptyset$ and $X$ required to be in $T$, not $X$? – user019828 Jul 05 '21 at 13:42
  • @user019828, (3) right, that's what I meant. I hope it's clearer now. – tempate Jul 05 '21 at 14:00
  • But $\emptyset$ and X are in T yet he requires that $X$ is not empty. These are different statements. One doesn't substitute for the other, it seems to me. – user019828 Jul 05 '21 at 14:02