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I am trying to figure out the following problem: Show that $f'=\lambda f$ for a real constant $\lambda$ has only $ce^{\lambda x}$ solutions.

My work: We take a look at $g(x)=f(x)\exp(\lambda x)$. We know $exp(x)$ never vanishes and f is differentiable, and g is differentiable, so we compute $g'(x)=\frac{f'(x)exp(\lambda x)-\lambda f(x)exp(\lambda x)}{(exp(x))^2}$. Since $f'=\lambda f$, $g'(x)=0$, so g is a constant, which means that $f(x)=g(x) \exp(\lambda x)=c\exp(\lambda x)$.

This follows rather nicely, but what I am confused about is if and how this exhausts all possible solutions for $f'=\lambda f$ for a real constant $\lambda$. Is this a complete proof?

Thanks in adnvace!

  • Have you tried to slove the diferențial equation nu separating the variabiles and integrate after? – WindSoul Jan 02 '23 at 14:05

3 Answers3

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Your computation of $g'$ is not consistent with your definition of $g.$

Better define $g$ as $g(x)=e^{-\lambda x}f(x)$ (not $e^{+\lambda x}f(x)$), so that $g'(x)=e^{-\lambda x}(f'(x)-\lambda f(x)).$

After that, reason by equivalences to be sure that you "exhaust all possible solutions".

$$\begin{align}f'=\lambda f&\iff g'=0\\&\iff\exists c\quad\forall x\in\Bbb R\quad g(x)=c\\&\iff\exists c\quad\forall x\in\Bbb R\quad f(x)=ce^{\lambda x}.\end{align}$$

The second $\iff$ is justified by the fact that the domain of $f$ and $g$ is implicitely $\Bbb R,$ hence connected.

Anne Bauval
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    Je crois que l'anglais ne pas votre langue première. Vous êtes très proficient, mais si vous désirez parlez mieux, on utiliserai 'consistent' ou vous avez écrit 'coherent'. C'est pas une grande chose, but it's the kind of minor misstep I do in French all the time (see above:-) ), and I appreciate it when people point it out to me. Hope I'm not being too nit-picky. – JonathanZ Jan 03 '23 at 18:27
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It just need to prove this:

Given $g(x)$ derivable, if $g'(x) \equiv 0$, then $g(x)$ is a constant function.

It's obvious. If $\exists x_1,x_2, g(x_1)\neq g(x_2)$, by mean value theorem, $\exists a\in(x_1,x_2),g'(a)\neq 0$. Contradiction.

In addition, any constant function satisfies the condition.

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If f was a monovariable real function, then the differential equation solves by integration: $$\frac{df}{dx}=\lambda f\Leftrightarrow \frac{df}{f}=\lambda dx|\int\Leftrightarrow\int{\frac{1}{f}df}=\int{\lambda dx}\Leftrightarrow \log |f| +C_1=\lambda x +C_2\Rightarrow f(x)=e^{\lambda x +C}$$ $$ f(x)=C\cdot e^{\lambda x}(\therefore)$$

Note than $C_1, C_2, C$ are constants so moving them around won’t change the fact the a constant appears in the final result.

Solving by integration ensures the uniqueness of the solution in a straightforward and intuitive manner. However, once we know the expression of f is easy to build an alternate solution that apparently didn’t require integration: $$\begin{align} g\prime(x)=&\lambda g(x)|\cdot e^{-\lambda x}\\ g\prime(x) \cdot e^{-\lambda x}=&\lambda g(x) \cdot e^{-\lambda x}\\ (g(x)\cdot e^{-\lambda x})\prime=&0\\g(x)\cdot e^{-\lambda x}=&c\\g(x)=&c\cdot e^{\lambda x}\text{,c constant}\end{align}$$

I personally find this approach deceiving because is a matter of stumbling onto what to multiply by in order to find the solution. However it seems to be the mostly sought off method so is worth mentioning.

WindSoul
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    This method is not rigorous or at best, lack some arguments, to explain that you exclude the constant function $0$ and that any other solution is nowhere $0.$ so that you can divide by $f.$ And there is an absolute value around $f$ missing when you integrate to $\log.$ Next, $f(x)=\pm e^{\dots},$ not necessarily $+ e^{\dots}.$ Finally, the $C$ in your last equation is not the $C$ in the previous one. And you should explain why it can be $>0$ or $<0$ (because of the previous $\pm$), or $0$ (when re-including the $0$ function among the solutions). – Anne Bauval Jan 02 '23 at 15:05
  • I thought we were supposed to hint into the right direction not write a doctoral thesis for an answer. I thank you for your exigent explanation . I guess I won’t get 100% in an exam with my answer, still this is far from a fail mark expressed by the downvote. If you feel like my answer needs improvement, you’re always welcome to write your own answer. – WindSoul Jan 02 '23 at 15:41
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    So did I before, in an absolutely not "doctoral thesis" style, and in a way which I find more adapted to the questionner (the "right direction" is not unique), because it relies on the OP's method, corrects it, and answers the confusion which (s)he expressed. I was not the downvoter but I tried to explain you, on your request, the probable many reasons for this downvote. – Anne Bauval Jan 02 '23 at 15:48
  • The inconsistency is that while one gets downvoted and noticed for “not rigorous or at best lack some arguments”, another is free to use “not doctoral thesis style”. And gets upvoted in the process. Thank you for your efforts. – WindSoul Jan 02 '23 at 16:15
  • I did not use doctoral thesis style but my answer was rigorous and adapted. – Anne Bauval Jan 02 '23 at 16:18
  • ? The same you saw in your previous comment. Just here, 4 hours ago. I have only one username. – Anne Bauval Jan 02 '23 at 19:11
  • I am referring to a true answer, not a comment. And I did not "berate": I did collaborate, providing a detailed comment, to answer your post, which asked for explanations for a downvote. "If you aren’t able to provide an answer to poster’s question" is speculative and sounds like a personal attack. – Anne Bauval Jan 02 '23 at 19:17