I am trying understand this proof http://www.proofwiki.org/wiki/Quotient_of_Group_by_Center_Cyclic_implies_Abelian
but I am confused what its trying to prove.
Wouldn't $G/Z(G)$ group have just one element $G$ if $G$ is abelian because $Z(G)$ is all of $G$ for abelian groups. So is $Z/Z(G)$ a cyclic group with just one element? I am not quite sure what that theorem is saying.