In Gradshteyn & Ryzhik's Tables of integrals, series, and products (1996) it is stated without proof that
If $f$ is an even, $\pi$-periodic function then $$\int_0^\infty f(x)\frac{\sin{x}}{x}\ dx=\int_0^{\pi/2} f(x)\ dx$$ assuming that the LHS integral exists.
I tried to prove this by breaking up the integral over $[0,\infty[$ into intervals of length $\pi$ and summing to infinity but I could not get any further than finding:
$$\int_0^\infty f(x)\frac{\sin{x}}{x}\ dx=\sum_{n=0}^\infty\int_0^\pi f(x)\frac{(-1)^n\sin{x}}{n\pi+x}\ dx$$
which doesn't seem too fruitful. My gut tells me that Fourier transforms should get involved at some point. Does anyone have a proof or a sketch of a proof?
\displaystylein titles is explicitely discouraged on the site -- hence your edit was actually making the post worse. – Did Apr 05 '17 at 13:34