Given $\mathfrak{R} = (\mathbb{N},0,\operatorname{S},<,+,\cdot)$, Let $$\Sigma = \{ 0 < c, \operatorname{S}{0} < c, \operatorname{S}\operatorname{S}{0} < c, \ldots\}$$
By compactness theorem and Löwenheim–Skolem theorem, we claim that $ \Sigma\cup \operatorname{Th}{\mathfrak{R}}$ has a countable model($\operatorname{Th}{\mathfrak{R}}$ means the set of all theorems of $\mathfrak{R}$),which is: $$\mathfrak{M} = (|\mathfrak{M}|,0^{\mathfrak{M}},S^{\mathfrak{M}},<^{\mathfrak{M}},+^{\mathfrak{M}},\cdot^{\mathfrak{M}},c^{\mathfrak{M}})$$
Let $\mathfrak{M}_0 $ be the restriction of $\mathfrak{M} $to the original language:$$\mathfrak{M}_0 = (|\mathfrak{M}|,0^{\mathfrak{M}},S^{\mathfrak{M}},<^{\mathfrak{M}},+^{\mathfrak{M}},\cdot^{\mathfrak{M}})$$
I'm confused as to why they're elementarily equivalent. It seems to me there isn't a infinite number in $\mathfrak{R}$, but there's one in $\mathfrak{M}_0 $. Isn't the case that $\nvDash_{\mathfrak{R}} \exists{x} \forall{y}(y <x \to\operatorname{S}{y} < x)$ But $\vDash_{\mathfrak{M}_0} \exists{x} \forall{y}(y <x \to\operatorname{S}{y} < x)$?