As stated, I've read this in a textbook and it seems not explainable solely based on steric clash or Coulombic interactions. I know for such a simple molecule, it can be predicted ab initio using quantum mechanical models (A paper on this), yet, I'm seeking a simple explanation for this conformer preference. Would anybody kindly explain to me the logic behind this? Thanks.
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https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/questions/20185/why-are-lactones-more-acidic-than-esters – Mithoron Nov 28 '18 at 00:18
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https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/questions/59458/which-electronic-effects-are-responsible-for-the-reduction-of-nucleophilicity-of – Mithoron Nov 28 '18 at 00:24