In July 2010, Richard Lynn wrote the following in their article "National IQs calculated and validated for 108 nations":
"For example, there was no measured IQ for Pakistan, but there was a measured IQ (81) for India. It was assumed that the IQ in Pakistan would be approximately the same as in India, and hence Pakistan was assigned an IQ of 81."
But in "A Study of the IQ in Bangladesh" Published: 2007/09/01 DOI: 10.46469/mq.2007.48.1.5, he wrote:
"At the time of this compilation we had no measured IQ for Bangladesh, so we assumed it would be the same as that of the Indian average for which we had a measured IQ of 82. We have now located a study in Bangladesh from which a measured IQ for can be calculated at 81."
Does that mean India's reduced by 1 point from 07 to 2010?
And the site worldpopulationreview.com mentions a score of 74.33 citing Richard Lynn and David Becker which is significantly lower than the two sources above (not linking it as I don't want to give them google juice) and lists Pakistan as having an average IQ of 80 and Nepal 42.99.
Why these findings seem implausible to me.
Lynn argues a strong correlation between IQ and wealth of nations exist. But,
- Bangladesh's GDP is 416.3 billion USD and Pakistan's 348.3 billion USD, and
- Bangladesh's Per Capita Income is 2457 USD and Pakistan's 1505 USD.
Doesn't that contradict his own findings? And the IQ of 43~ of Nepal is considered in the "mentally retarded range" but they have the per capita income of 1,371.971 USD which is close to Pakistan's where the IQ is supposed to be 80.
Pakistan is a much larger country with a lot of mineral resources while Nepal is a landlocked country. If there hypothesis is correct, then what causes these inconsistencies?
So, my question is, what is the average IQ in Bangladesh based on sound research?