Consider a signal $s(t)$. My question is if you know $|s(t)|$ and $|\mathcal{FT}[s(t)](f)| = |S(f)|$ or equivalently $|s(t)|^2$ and $|S(f)|^2$ is it possible to determine $s(t)$? That is, is $s(t)$ uniquely determined by $|s(t)|$ and $|S(f)|$?
My strong feeling is that the answer is no but I can't come up with two signals $s_1(t) \neq s_2(t)$ which have the same magnitude and whose Fourier transforms have the same magnitude. Actually I can come up with trivial examples but that doesn't fully satisfy me. Let me share by work so far.
First of all, if we consider
$s_2(t) = s_1(t) e^{i\phi}$
Where $\phi$ is any real constant number then we clearly see that
\begin{align} S_2(f) = S_1(f) e^{i\phi} \end{align}
and
\begin{align} |s_2(t)| &= |s_1(t)|\\ |S_2(f)| &= |S_1(f)| \end{align}
So this example is a clear counterexample. However, this is just a trivial global phase that cannot be determined. That is, it is clear now that there is global phase multiplier that cannot be determined if only $|s(t)|$ and $|S(f)|$ are known. But, lets say that we either don't care about an overall phase factor or we happen to know that $s(0) = |s(0)|$ so that this global phase can be fixed.
Is it possible to come up with a non-trivial example of two functions which are a counterexample to what I am asking? I can phrase it this way.
If $|s_2(t)|= |s_1(t)|$ then
\begin{align} s_2(t) = \Phi(t)s_1(t) \end{align}
Where $|\Phi(t)|=1$ for all $t$. We then have that (by the convolution theorem)
\begin{align} S_2(f) = S_1(f) \ast \Phi(f) \end{align}
The question is is it possible for
\begin{align} |S_2(f)| = |S_1(f)\ast\Phi(f)| = |S_1(f)| \end{align}
If a non-trivial $\Phi(t)$ could be demonstrated then it would be clear that $|s(t)|$ and $|S(f)|$ do not uniquely determine $s(t)$ in any sense but I can't seem to come up with anything.
If I am wrong and it turns out that $|s(t)|$ and $|S(f)|$ do in fact uniquely determine $s(t)$ then could anyone provide a method to determine $s(t)$ (up to a missing overall phase) from $|s(t)|$ and $|S(f)|$?