Phase modulation causes instantaneous frequency to vary according to modulating signal. In the same way does Frequency modulation by direct method causes any phase variation in proportion to modulating signal?
Asked
Active
Viewed 39 times
1 Answers
1
Yes. Frequency is the derivative of phase over time. So you can't modulate one without changing the other.
Marcus Müller
- 30,525
- 4
- 34
- 58
-
Thank you marcus – sudheer Jun 28 '22 at 10:45
-
It seems from equations : FM by m(t) results in PM by 2pim(t).t where as PM by m(t) results in FM by (1/(2pi)) d/dt(m(t)) – sudheer Jun 28 '22 at 12:06
-
yes. again, frequency is the derivative of phase. No matter how you modulate a signal, you cannot effect one without affecting the other. – Marcus Müller Jun 28 '22 at 15:35