For OFDM, will the following relation always hold:
subcarrier_spacing * sampling_time = 1/N
N: number of subcarriers which is the size of IFFT/FFT
This will imply that sampling frequency is exactly equal to the bandwidth of the OFDM.
Thanks.
For OFDM, will the following relation always hold:
subcarrier_spacing * sampling_time = 1/N
N: number of subcarriers which is the size of IFFT/FFT
This will imply that sampling frequency is exactly equal to the bandwidth of the OFDM.
Thanks.
subcarrier_spacing * sampling_time = 1/N
doing minimal rearranging:
subcarrier_spacing · sampling_time · N = 1
subcarrier_spacing · N = 1/sampling_time
subcarrier_spacing · N = f_sample
Yes, that is the very definition of "subcarrier spacing". Remember that the DFT is a square transform, so the vectors going in have to be exactly the same size as those coming out.
If the OP is referring to the sampling frequency of the time domain waveform in the OFDM transmitter (after the IFFT), then these relationships will not always hold. There are many practical reasons in an OFDM implementation to have a higher sampling frequency than the OFDM bandwidth. This higher sampling frequency could be implemented in the FFT mapping by using more bins that are filled with zeros outside of the designated bandwidth and sub-carrier assignments, or interpolated after computing an inverse FFT to create the time domain waveform to be transmitted.
The reasons for this are:
We must have transition bandwidth prior to the Digital to Analog converter to reject the images in the analog reconstruction of the waveform.
Significant excess bandwidth in the digital domain is needed for many approaches to power amplifier linearization (predistortion).
Excess bandwidth can also be used for crest factor reduction techniques.