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I'm trying to apply the associated flow rule to elastic-perfectly plastic material, i.e.,$$d\epsilon_{ij}^p=\lambda\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial \sigma_{ij}}$$, where $f$ is a yield function with no hardening variable, $\lambda$ is a plastic multiplier. I understand that $\lambda$ can be found through consistency condition ($df=0$), which gives $$\lambda=\dfrac{\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial \sigma_{ij}}C_{ijkl}d\epsilon_{kl}}{\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial \sigma_{ij}}C_{ijkl}\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial \sigma_{kl}}}$$ This seems confusing to me since after yielding is activated for perfectly plastic deformation $d\bf\sigma=0$ and $d\bf\epsilon^e=0$ when $d\bf\epsilon^p>0$. Therefore $d\epsilon_{kl}=d\epsilon^p_{kl}$, substituting this into $\lambda$'s expression renders $\lambda$ indeterminate. Maybe there's something I understand wrong, but if this is the case, how would the plastic deformation be predicted for such the material? Thanks!

Lang
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  • I was wrong about the statement that total strain rate is equal to plastic strain rate in this case. Total strain rate is actually projected to yield surface normal to get plastic strain rate.. source: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ylpPzR_Ba5s&list=PL6f9zUtPSkfhAQyJ4GP1O-u4JKokNq4cU&index=6 – Lang Jul 09 '19 at 18:06

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