Remember that the sequence
$$
\left(1+\frac{1}{k}\right)^k,\qquad k\in\mathbb N,
$$ for $k\in\mathbb N$ is monotonically increasing and tends to $e$ as $k\to\infty$, so we guess that $\sup(A)=e$. To see this, fix $m,n\in\mathbb N$. Then for $k=m+n$ we have due to the monotony that
$$
\left(\frac{m+n+1}{m+n}\right)^{m+n}=\left(1+\frac{1}{k}\right)^k\leq e,
$$
and since $m$ and $n$ were arbitrary, we have $x\leq e$ for each $x\in A$, so $e$ is an upper bound of $A$. But it must be the smallest one, since for $m=0$ and arbitrary $n$ the numbers
$$
\left(\frac{m+n+1}{m+n}\right)^{m+n}=\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n
$$
form a sequence of elements of $A$ which tends to $e$. (If you are not allowed to choose $m=0$, then you can also take $m=n$ (or even $m=1$). Then you end up with
$$
\left(\frac{m+n+1}{m+n}\right)^{m+n}=\left(1+\frac{1}{2n}\right)^{2n},
$$
and you can use the same argument as before (note that $(1+\frac{1}{2n})^{2n}$ is a subsequence of $(1+\frac{1}{n})^n$).