$$\sum_1^\infty\frac{(n!)^2+(2n)^n}{n^{2n}}$$ Is there a way to test convergence of this series wihout splitting it ? (in case splitting is correct)
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I deleted my answer because I do not answer the question about splitting. I apologize. Cheers :-) – Claude Leibovici Dec 06 '14 at 14:13
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Find out the order of the numerator: is $(n!)^2\ge (2n)^n$ in general? Then you can compare the greatest of the two with the denominator. – abiessu Dec 06 '14 at 14:13
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Show, using Stirling's approximation, that for $n\ge10$, we have $0\le(2n)^n\le(n!)^2$, and then use squeezing.
Lucian
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