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Consider the $L^p$ spaces. is $\|\cdot\|_p\leq \|\cdot\|_{p'}$ for $p<p'$? is it true if the domain of $L^p$ is finite measure?

Thanks

  • no, one has a constant that is not equal to 1 (in general). but it is true if the domain has finite measure – Mister Benjamin Dover Jan 14 '15 at 21:56
  • So there is $C>0$ such that $|\cdot|p\leq|\cdot|{p'}$? Is it true generally or only in finite measure? also, why is it true generally? – JackTheRunner Jan 14 '15 at 21:57
  • in the answer I'll just post the correct result – Mister Benjamin Dover Jan 14 '15 at 21:57
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If $\mu(\Omega)<\infty$ then it follows from Hölder's inequality that $||f||_{L^p} \leq C||f||_{L^{p'}}$ whenever $f\in L^{p'}$, where $C$ depends only on $\mu(\Omega)$, $p$, and $p'$. The result is false if the measure is not finite: consider $\mathbf{R}$, it is easy to find an $L^2(\mathbf{R})$ function that does not lie in $L^1(\mathbf{R})$.