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There is a proposition to the effect that if the Lebesgue measure of a set is zero, then it is a set of empty interior. Does the converse also hold true, i.e. is the Lebesgue measure of any set of empty interior zero? If not, is there a straightforward counterexample?

Behrooz
  • 1,000

2 Answers2

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What about $\mathbb{R}\setminus\mathbb{Q}$? It has empty interior but it has infinite measure because $\mathbb{Q}$ has measure zero (it is countable).

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Fat Cantor sets provide another set of counter examples.

voldemort
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