I am facing a bit weird issue here. I am going through Shreeve book on stochastic calculus and faced the following theorem, while proving $dWdt=0$.
$\sum_{j=0}^{n-1}(W(t_{j+1})-W(t_j))(t_{j+1}-t_j)$
$\le$ $\max_{0 \le k \lt n-1} |(W(t_{j+1})-W(t_j))| \cdot \sum_{j=0}^{n-1}(t_{j+1}-t_j)$
Now he argued that the because $W$ is continuous , the first term in the above equation goes to zero as the time partition goes to infinity. Now the doubt I am having is that,
$(W(t_{j+1})-W(t_j))=y \cdot \sqrt {t_{j+1}-t_j}$, where $y$ is a standard normal random variable. Then the maximum of this term can be anything from $-\infty$ to $\infty$. Now you may argue that as time partition goes to infinity, the time difference goes to zero (so the square root term goes to zero), but even in this case it can be $0 \cdot \infty$ scenario as the random variable has positive probability, which would again be undefined.
Then how the author argued that the maximum of difference in Brownian terms is zero! Please help.
Best Regards,