Problem: If $x$ and $y$ are real numbers such that $y \geq 0$ and $y(y+1) \leq (x+1)^2$, prove that $y(y-1) \leq x^2$.
This is what I tried:
\begin{align}
y(y+1) \leq (x+1)^2 &\implies y^2 + y \leq x^2 + 2x + 1 \\
&\implies x^2 \geq y^2 + y - 2x - 1 \\
&\implies x^2 \geq y^2 - y - 2x - 1 \tag{because $y \geq 0$}\\
&\implies x^2 \geq y(y-1) -2x - 1
\end{align}
I think I'm approaching this wrong, because if I start with the inequality $y(y+1) \leq (x+1)^2$, then the $2x + 1$ that results from the expansion of the RHS will never cancel out.
So, I tried this instead:
\begin{align} y(y+1) \leq (x+1)^2 &\implies y^2 + y \leq x^2 + 2x + 1 \\ &\implies x^2 \geq y^2 + y - 2x - 1 \\ &\implies x^2 \geq y^2 - y - 2x - 1 \tag{same as before} \end{align}
Then, I supposed that $y(y-1) \leq x^2$ is true. Consequently, because $y^2 - y - 2x - 1 \leq x^2$ (the last line), it is sufficient to show that $y(y-1) \leq y^2 - y - 2x - 1$. Again, this doesn't work because $-2x - 1$ doesn't cancel out.
Now I'm very much stuck and don't know how to proceed. If anyone can give me a hint, it'll be very much appreciated. Thanks!