The title basically says it all. How does one prove the group of automorphisms of $S^1$ (the unit circle in $\mathbb C$), as a topological group, is $\mathbb Z_2$? I was surprised not to find the answer here already, maybe I just didn't use the right search terms but I looked pretty far and wide and didn't find it. Nor did a general google search turn up the proof. I should add that this is an exercise in a "basic" topology book so I'm looking for an elementary self-contained proof that does not refer to any major theorems.
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I basically need to show $f(z)=z$ or $f(z)=\overline z$. I can show $f(z)=\overline{f(\overline z)}$ but that's not quite what I need. – Gregory Grant Apr 23 '15 at 21:51
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1You could probably use induction to show that those are the only choices for the subgroup $$\left{z\in S^1\mid \arg(z)=\frac{2\pi}{2^n},n\in \Bbb N\right},$$and then use continuity to prove it for the rest of the points. – Arthur Apr 23 '15 at 22:01
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@Arthur Thank you, I'll try that. – Gregory Grant Apr 23 '15 at 22:13
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1Related: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/902620/what-are-the-continuous-automorphisms-of-bbb-t – Cameron Williams Apr 24 '15 at 03:18
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2By the way, your title does not say it all, because you did not define your category of automorphisms. The answer that you gave shows that you intepreted your title to mean "continuous automorphisms", consistent with your tag "general-topology". What about plain old group theoretic automorphisms, consistent with your tag "abstract-algebra"? – Lee Mosher Apr 24 '15 at 14:12
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3@LeeMosher I thought saying automorphisms "as a topological group" made the category clear. I'm still confused as to why it doesn't. – Gregory Grant Apr 24 '15 at 17:48
3 Answers
It is well-known that $\text{End}(S^1) \cong \mathbb Z$ (cf. Pontryagin dual of the unit circle), hence $\text{Aut}(S^1) \cong \mathbb Z^{\times} \cong \mathbb Z/2$.
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3Thank you. But this is an exercise in Basic Topology by Armstrong, chapter 4, so there has to be an elementary self-contained way to show it. – Gregory Grant Apr 23 '15 at 22:12
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1I managed to prove it using basic notions. But thanks again for your answer, I wasn't the one who gave it a down vote, I gave it an up to bring it back to zero. – Gregory Grant Apr 24 '15 at 03:07
I managed to prove it using basic principles. It seems there may be a much easier way. This way is actually pretty easy but it's not that easy to write down precisely. Anyway, here is an answer.
Let $f:S^1\rightarrow S^1$ be an automorphism. Let $a=e^{i\theta}$ and $b=e^{i\phi}$ in $S^1$ where $0\leq\theta\leq\phi\leq2\pi$. Let $I_{a,b}=\{e^{ix}\mid \theta\leq x\leq\phi\}$. In words $I_{a,b}$ is the closed segment of the circle going counter-clockwise from $a$ to $b$. Then for example $I_{1,-1}$ is the upper half of the circle $\{z\in S^1\mid\text{im }z\geq0\}$, and $I_{-1,1}$ is the lower half of the circle $\{z\in S^1\mid\text{im }z\leq0\}$. Note that $\overline{I_{a,b}}=I_{\overline b,\overline a}$
By the intermediate value theorem and the fact that $f$ is one-to-one, it must be that $$ f(I_{a,b})=I_{f(a),f(b)}\text{ or }f(I_{a,b})=I_{f(b),f(a)} \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ (1) $$ Let $n\in\mathbb N$. There are exactly $n$ solutions to the equation $x^n-1=0$ in $\mathbb C$, called $n$-th roots of unity, evenly spaced around the circle. If $z^n=1$ then $1=\overline{z^n}=\overline{z}^n$. Thus the conjugate of an $n$-th root of unity is another $n$-th root of unity. We will prove by induction on $n$ that for every root of unity $z$, $f(z)=z$ or for every root of unity $f(z)=\overline{z}$.
Precisely let the statement $S(n)$ be:
$f(z)=z$ $\forall$ $n$-th roots of unity $z$ and for consecutive $n$-th roots of unity $a$ and $b$, $f(I_{a,b})=I_{a,b}$
or
$f(z)=\overline z$ $\forall$ $n$-th roots of unity $z$ and for consecutive $n$-th roots of unity $a$ and $b$, $f(I_{a,b})=\overline{I_{a,b}}$.
Base case $n=2$. The square roots of unity are $\pm1$. Since $f$ is a homomorphism of groups $f(1)=1$. Since $(-1)^2=1$, $1=f(1)=f((-1)^2)=(f(-1))^2$ Thus $f(-1)=\pm1$. Since $f(1)=1$ it cannot be that also $f(-1)=1$, thus $f(-1)=-1$. Thus $f$ fixes 1 and $-1$. Then by (1) $f(I_{1,-1})=I_{1,-1}$ or $f(I_{1,-1})=I_{-1,1}$. The base case $n=2$ therefore is true.
Assume $S(m)$ is true $\forall$ $m<n$. Let $\zeta$ be an $n$-th root of unity. Then $\zeta^n=1$, so $1=f(\zeta^n)=(f(\zeta))^n$. Thus $f(\zeta)$ is also an $n$-th root of unity. Now let $a,b\in S^1$ be consective $(n-1)$-st roots of unity. We will use (repeatedly) the following key point: there is one and only one $n$-th root of unity $z\in I_{a,b}$ (the $n$th roots of unity are equally spaced around the circle, so this is geometrically evident). By the induction hypothesis $f$ either fixes $a$ and $b$ or sends them to their (respective) conjugates. If it fixes $a$ and $b$ then, by the induction hypothesis, $f(I_{a,b})=I_{a,b}$. Thus the only $n$-th root of unity in $f(I_{a,b})$ is $z$. Since $f(z)$ must be an $n$-th root of unity, it must be that $f(z)=z$. On the other hand, if $f$ sends $a$ and $b$ to their conjugates, then by the induction hypothesis $f(I_{a,b})=\overline{I_{a,b}}$, which equals $I_{\overline b,\overline a}$ and $\overline b, \overline a$ are consecutive $(n-1)$-st roots of unity, thus as before $f(I_{a,b})$ contains one and only one $n$-th root of unity, $\overline{z}$. Since $f(z)\in I_{\overline b,\overline a}$ must be an $n$-th root of unity, it follows that $f(z)=\overline{z}$. Thus we have shown that $f$ either fixes all of the $n$-th roots of unity or sends them all to their conjugates. The required behavior of $f$ on the intervals between consecutive $n$-th roots of unity follows from (1).
Thus we have shown that $f$ fixes all of the roots of unity. The roots of unity correspond to the rational numbers in $[0,1]$ under the map $x\mapsto e^{2\pi ix}$. Thus the roots of unity are dense in $S^1$. Therefore if $f$ fixes all of the roots of unity, and $f$ is continuous, then $f$ must be the identity function. And if $f$ sends all roots of unity to their conjugates, then $f$ must send all elements of $S^1$ to their conjugates. Thus the identity function and conjugation are the only two possibilities for $f$.
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The elementary, clear way to do this problem is to show that the only continuous group homomorphisms $\mathbf R\rightarrow\mathbf R$ are $x\mapsto \lambda x$ for some $\lambda\in\mathbf R$. Using this and unique path lifting one shows that the only continuous group homomorphisms $\mathbf R\rightarrow S^1$ are $x\mapsto e^{i\lambda x}$ for fixed $\lambda\in\mathbf R$ as before. Finally, $\mathbf R/\mathbf Z\cong S^1$ as top gps, so any continuous gp hom $\mathbf R/\mathbf Z\cong S^1\rightarrow S^1$ is the same as a $\mathbf Z$-periodic continuous gp hom $\mathbf R\rightarrow S^1$; these are just the involutions corresponding to $\lambda=\pm2\pi$. $\blacksquare$
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