Even if you don't know the explicit factorization, you certainly know that a quartic polynomial in $\mathbb{R}[X]$ is reducible.
Indeed, a consequence of the fact that every polynomial of positive degree in $\mathbb{C}[X]$ has a root, we can see that the irreducible polynomials over $\mathbb{R}[X]$ are those of degree $1$ and the quadratic polynomials with negative discriminant.
To wit, let $f(X)\in\mathbb{R}[X]$ be monic of degree $>1$. If $f$ has a real root, then it is reducible. So, assume it has no real root. Since it has a complex root $a$, also $\bar{a}$ is a root, because
$$
f(\bar{a})=\overline{f(a)}=\bar{0}=0
$$
(overlining means conjugation). Thus $f$ is divisible (in $\mathbb{C}$) by $X-a$ and $X-\bar{a}$, so also by their product
$$
g(X)=(X-a)(X-\bar{a})=X^2-(a+\bar{a})X+a\bar{a}
$$
(because $X-a$ and $X-\bar{a}$ are coprime in $\mathbb{C}[X]$). However, $g(X)$ has real coefficients, so the quotient of the division of $f(X)$ by $g(X)$ is again a polynomial in $\mathbb{R}[X]$. So, unless $f$ has degree $2$ (and so $f(X)=g(X)$), $f$ is reducible.