5

Compute the arithmetic genus of the union of the three coordinate axes $Z(x_1x_2,x_1x_3,x_2x_3) \subseteq \mathbb{P}^3$

The arithmetic genus of $X \subseteq \mathbb{P}^n$ is $g(X)=(-1)^{dim(X)}(\chi(0)-1)$, where $\chi$ is the Hilbert polynomial of $X$.

Let \begin{equation*} X = Z(x_1x_2,x_1x_3,x_2x_3) \subseteq \mathbb{P}^3. \end{equation*} I guess that $dim(X)=1$, since the coordinate $x_0$ is free.

I showed that if $X$ is a hypersurface of degree $d$ in $\mathbb{P}^n$, then $g(X)=\binom{d-1}{n}$. I don't think that this can be applied to this problem but it's a general result that I know.

I showed also that if $X$ is a complete intersection of two surfaces of degree $a$ and $b$ in $\mathbb{P}^3$, then $g(X)=\frac{1}{2}ab(a+b-4)+1$.

Is there any solution of this problem that does not involve computing the Hilbert polynomial of $X$? However, if computing the Hilbert polynomial is simplier, that's ok for me.

Thanks!

Leafar
  • 1,723

3 Answers3

5

Here is an elementary, easy, self-contained proof which, as a friend reminded me, results from a discussion we had a few months ago. I could kick myself for forgetting about it yesterday ...

Consider two subschemes $X_1,X_2\subset \mathbb P_k^n=\operatorname {Proj}(S)\quad (S=k[T_0,\cdots,T_n]) $.
From the exact sequence $$0\to S/I(X_1)\cap I(X_2)\to S/I(X_1)\oplus S/I(X_2)\to S/(I(X_1)+ I(X_2))\to 0$$ we get the relation between Hilbert polynomials $$ H_{X_1}(t)+H_{X_2}(t)= H_{X_1\cup X_2}(t)+ H_{X_1\cap X_2}(t) \quad (\bigstar )$$ Applying this to $$X_1=V(x_3,x_1x_2),\: X_2=V(x_1,x_2),\: X_1\cap X_2=V(x_1,x_2,x_3)=\{[1:0:0:0]\}, X=X_1\cup X_2$$ we get, remembering that $X_1$ is just a reducible plane conic so that $H_{X_1}(t)=2t+1$, that $X_2$ is a line so that $H_{X_2}(t)=t+1$, and that $X_1\cap X_2$ is a reduced point with Hilbert polynomial the constant $1$: $$(2t+1)+(t+1)=H_X(t)+(1) \quad (\bigstar \bigstar)$$ Hence $H_X(t)=3t+1$ and thus $p_a(X)=0$.

WARNING
One might wonder why (fortunately!) the above calculation doesn't work when $X'_2$ is a line in the same plane as $X_1$, going through the singularity $P$ of $X_1$.
The answer is that in this case the intersection $X_1\cap X'_2$ is no longer a simple point but the double point at $P$ embedded in $X'_2$.
In that case the analogous calculation yields for $X_0=X_1\cup X'_2$ the Hilbert polynomial $H_{X_0}(t)= 3t$, as already mentioned in my other answer.
One must very carefully note that the formula $(\bigstar)$ is correct only if one interprets union and intersection in the scheme-theoretic sense: never ever forget about nilpotents!

  • Dear Georges, in the context of the OP's question I think this is the best possible answer (and deserves the green tick mark!) I observe for the OP's benefit that the exact sequence of sheaves in my answer is really just a fancy version of the exact sequence of $S$-modules at the start of this answer. –  May 27 '15 at 05:30
  • Thank you, dear Asal. Although I greatly appreciate your mathematics I value your gentlemanliness and sense of fair-play even more. – Georges Elencwajg May 27 '15 at 06:29
  • Dear Georges, I appreciate the kind words. Since I am deleting my account today, let me take this opportunity to wish you goodbye, and say thank you for many excellent answers and pleasant exchanges. –  Jun 01 '15 at 14:55
  • Dear @Asal: what horrible news! There must be a curse on this site's algebraic geometers: my favourite users Emerton, Qing Liu and now you have left or are leaving. Couldn't you stay under another pseudonym ? I'm begging you to reconsider. – Georges Elencwajg Jun 01 '15 at 17:46
  • Dear Georges, it's not a matter of identity, just time: now that the little Asal has arrived, there is less time for diversions like this, however pleasant. But perhaps later I will have more free time again and return In the meantime, it is up to you to carry the torch for algebraic geometry on MSE! –  Jun 01 '15 at 18:11
  • 1
    Ah, that changes all, dear @Asal. Congratulations to the parents and all my wishes for a long life of happiness to little Asal. – Georges Elencwajg Jun 01 '15 at 18:41
  • Thanks for posting this new answer (sorry, I had a busy week and I only had time to inspect your answer today). First of all, this seems to be ''the answer I was looking for'' and I understand most of it. What I don't understand is how you computed $H_{X_1}(t)$ and $H_{X_2}(t)$. I know that if $X=\text{Proj} k[x_0,\ldots,x_n]/(f)$ is the zero locus of a homogeneous polynomial $f$, $h_X(d)=\binom{d+n}{n}-\binom{d-deg(f)+n}{n}$. Is by this formula that you can conlude the results? – Leafar Jun 07 '15 at 00:41
  • Yes, the conic is the zero locus of a homogeneous polynomial on the plane in which it lives: $n=2, deg(f)=2$ in your formula. – Georges Elencwajg Jun 07 '15 at 08:59
  • Dear @Georges Elencwajg, can you please see my question in http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1333270/finding-a-stronger-version-of-cayley-bacharach-theorem-that-applies-in-the-case and give your impression? Since you are answering me most of my algebraic geometry questions and I like your answers I think that maybe you can help. I also offer a bounty. Thanks – Leafar Jun 25 '15 at 03:25
4

There is a nice general method for calculating the arithmetic genus of a reducible curve like this where a bunch of curves are being glued transversely. It uses the (equivalent) description of the arithmetic genus of a curve $X$ over a field as the dimension of the cohomology group $H^1(\mathcal O_X)$.

So suppose $C_1$ and $C_2$ are curves over a field. Let $X$ denote the curve we get by glueing a point $p_1 \in C_1$ transversely to a point $p_2 \in C_2$. Call the image of the glueing points $p \in X$. Then we have an exact sequence of sheaves on $X$ of the form

$$ 0 \rightarrow O_X \rightarrow \mathcal O_{C_1} \oplus \mathcal O_{C_2} \rightarrow k_p \rightarrow 0 $$

where $k_p$ is the skyscraper sheaf supported at $p$. (The first map is pullback of functions; the second is zero away from $p$, and $(f_1,f_2) \mapsto f_1(p)-f_2(p)$ on open sets containing $p$.)

Now take cohomology of this sequence: you get

$$0 \rightarrow H^0(O_X) \rightarrow H^0(\mathcal O_{C_1}) \oplus H^0(\mathcal O_{C_2}) \rightarrow H^0(k_p) \rightarrow H^1(O_X) \rightarrow H^1(\mathcal O_{C_1}) \oplus H^1(\mathcal O_{C_2}) \rightarrow 0$$ where the final zero comes from the fact that $k_p$ is supported at a single point.

Now, I leave it to you to check that the first three nonzero terms give a short exact sequence. That implies that $$H^1(O_X)=H^1(\mathcal O_{C_1}) \oplus H^1(\mathcal O_{C_2})$$

In other words, arithmetic genus is additive when we glue curves transversely at a point! Notice that we didn't require anything to be smooth or irreducible, so you can apply this in your situation in two steps by glueing two of the axes together, then glueing on the third.

Exercise: Modify the above argument to show that if $Y$ is a curve obtained by transverse glueing of two points on the same connected curve $X$, then $$\operatorname{dim} H^1(\mathcal O_Y) = \operatorname{dim} H^1(\mathcal O_X)+1$$

Use this to figure out what happens when you glue any number of curves transversely at any number of points!

  • Thanks for answering! This is a nice answer but at this point I know almost nothing about sheaves... in my notes of algebraic geometry this comes before sheaves (where, for example, the skyscraper sheaf appears). Is there any other simple way to conclude the same? (Please see my edit where I give a new formula that maybe can help) – Leafar May 25 '15 at 19:46
  • Dear Asal, this a very elegant method, which I knew only in the case of smooth curves . Could you please explain how exactly you use the transversality hypothesis in proving the exactness of $ 0 \rightarrow O_X \rightarrow \mathcal O_{C_1} \oplus \mathcal O_{C_2} \rightarrow k_p \rightarrow 0 $ ? – Georges Elencwajg May 25 '15 at 21:42
  • Dear @GeorgesElencwajg, the point is that for regular functions on $C_1$ and $C_2$ to glue to a regular function on $X$, only their values need to agree. If the glueing were not transverse, we would need to match derivatives, giving a cokernel of higher rank at $p$. –  May 25 '15 at 21:47
  • And by the way, please do not answer the challenge here: you would spoil the experiment :-) – Georges Elencwajg May 25 '15 at 21:47
  • Dear @GeorgesElencwajg: I will save my wisdom for where it is needed. ;) –  May 25 '15 at 21:51
  • 1
    Dear Asal, I'm sure you are right, but I confess that I'm not sure I could write down the details. But that's my fault, not yours: I'm impressed, as always, by your virtuosity. Or is it saved wisdom ? :-) Anyway, +1. – Georges Elencwajg May 25 '15 at 21:55
  • Dear @GeorgesElencwajg: maybe my previous comment was a bit enigmatic. A more explicit way to say it might be this: suppose $R_1$ and $R_2$ are 1-dimensional local rings. To glue them at their closed point is to find a 1-dimensional local domain $S$ inside $R_1 \oplus R_2$. My claim is that the Zariski tangent space to Spec $S$ at its closed point is the direct sum of the tangent spaces to the Spec $R_i$ at their closed points if and only if the cokernel of $S \rightarrow R_1 \oplus R_2$ equals $k$. –  May 26 '15 at 10:26
  • 1
    @Leafar: I'm afraid I don't have another explanation, apart from trying to understand the Hilbert polynomial of your curve directly. Consider my answer a handy tool that you might be able to dig out of the drawer and use sometime. –  May 26 '15 at 10:30
  • Dear Asal: thanks again ! – Georges Elencwajg May 26 '15 at 11:44
2

The required arithmetic genus is $$p_a(X)=0$$ You can see it by using a formula published in 1957 by Hironaka in the article:
On the arithmetic genera and the effective genera of algebraic curves (Theorem 2, page 190).
The formula is $$ p_a(C)=\pi(C)+\sum_P\delta (P) -(r-1)$$ The sum is over the singular points $P\in C$ and $\delta (P)=\dim (\tilde {\mathcal O} _P/\mathcal O_P) $ .
The number $r$ is the number of irreducible components of $C$ and $\pi(C)$ is the sum of the genera of those irreducible components of $C$
In our case $\pi(X)=3, \sum_P\delta (P)=3-1, r=3$ and we thus get, as announced, $p_a(X)=0$.

Here is a related article by Sánchez while this article by Hartshorne also leads to our result (cf. Theorem 3.1 ).

Note that as a consequence (!) the Hilbert polynomial of $X$ is $H_X(t)=3t+1$.
Note also that the Hilbert polynomial of the union $X_0$ in $\mathbb P^2$ of three lines passing through a point is $H_{X_0}(t)=3t$, so that $X$ can't be flatly deformed into $X_0$, contrary to what one might naïvely conjecture.

Edit
Browsing the Internet I have come across this paper on Hironaka's work
It puts the result in context and explains that Hironaka's article was his first one, and originated with his Master Thesis. Not bad for a beginner!