I want to show (or rather, know why) $$\sum_{k = 1}^{\infty} \frac{k^2}{k!} = 2e.$$ I have tried using the power series expansion for $e^x$, and also series manipulations with $\ln(x)$, but with no success. Any hints would be appreciated.
3 Answers
$$\sum_{k=1}^{+\infty}\frac{k^2}{k!}=\sum_{k=1}^{+\infty}\frac{k}{(k-1)!}=\sum_{k=1}^{+\infty}\frac{k-1}{(k-1)!}+\sum_{k\geq 1}\frac{1}{(k-1)!}=2\sum_{k\geq 0}\frac{1}{k!}=\color{red}{2e}.$$
An alternative approach is the following one. Since: $$\sum_{k\geq 1}\frac{e^{kx}}{k!} = e^{e^x}-1, \tag{1} $$ we have: $$ \frac{d^2}{dx^2}\sum_{k\geq 1}\frac{e^{kx}}{k!}=\sum_{k\geq 1}\frac{k^2 e^{kx}}{k!}=e^{x+e^x}+e^{2x+e^x}\tag{2}$$ and it is enough to replace $x$ with $0$.
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1My hat goes off to you. – Kevin Sheng Sep 15 '15 at 02:59
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@KevinSheng: no need of such formality, I am just glad to help. – Jack D'Aurizio Sep 15 '15 at 02:59
Recall that the expansion for $e^x$ is given by
$$e^x=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^n}{n!}\tag 1$$
Differentiating $(1)$ and mulitplying by $x$ yields
$$xe^x=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{nx^{n}}{n!}\tag 2$$
Differentiating $(2)$ and multiplying by $x$ yields
$$x(x+1)e^x=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{n^2x^{n}}{n!}\tag 3$$
whereupon setting $x=1$ reveals that
$$\bbox[5px,border:2px solid #C0A000]{2e=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{n^2}{n!}}$$
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General formulas are rather useful. Equation (3) can be used to show $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{n} , n^{2}}{n!} = 0$$ – Leucippus Sep 15 '15 at 03:27
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1@Leucippus It's been a while. Nice to see you returning. And yes! Upon inspection, it would not be an obvious evaluation ... not for me anyway. – Mark Viola Sep 15 '15 at 03:31
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Hint: $\frac{k^2}{k!}=\frac{k}{(k-1)!}=\frac{1+(k-1)}{(k-1)!}$. You also need to pay attention at the beginning of the series as well.
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