I know how to prove the case when $\lim \limits_{n \to ∞}$$\left(\frac{1} {n^{p}}\right)$ if p>0 but $\sum_{i=1}^n k^p$ it is causing me some problems , and the problem does not give me any clue.
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2http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/419765/limit-lim-n-to-infty-frac1p2p-ldotsnpnp1?lq=1 – Noam Shalev - nospoon Sep 17 '15 at 20:20
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where does $i$ and $k$ relate in the sum? – Chinny84 Sep 17 '15 at 20:20
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Rewrite the sum as $$\frac1n\biggl(\sum_{i=1}^n\Bigl(\frac kn\Bigr)^p\biggr)$$ One gets an upper Riemann sum for the function $x^p$.
Bernard
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