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Let $d=(m,n)$. Prove: $$φ (mn) = φ (m) φ (n)\frac{d}{φ (d)}$$ Can anyone help me with this proof?

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1 Answers1

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I use the fact that phi-function is multiplicative.

If a prime $p^{\alpha-1}||m$ and $p$ does not divide $n$ then it contributes $p^{\alpha-1}(p-1)$ to the left hand side. Also its obvious that it will "create" a factor of $p^{\alpha-1}(p-1)$ on the right hand side.

If a prime $p^{\alpha-1}||n$ and $p$ does not divide $m$ then it contributes $p^{\alpha-1}(p-1)$ to the left hand side. Also its obvious that it will "create" a factor of $p^{\alpha-1}(p-1)$ on the right hand side.

If a prime $q$ such that $q^{r}||m$ and $q^{s}||n$ then it contributes a factor $q^{r+s-1}(q-1)$ on the left and side. On the right hand side the $q$ will contribute a factor of $\frac{q^{r-1}(q-1)q^{s-1}(q-1)q^{min(m,n)}}{q^{min(m,n)-1}(q-1)}=q^{r+s-1}(q-1)$.

So, we are done.

We can rigorise this using canonical factorisation representation of the $m$ and $n$.