4

Im not sure what to do for this one, any help would be appreciated.

Geoff
  • 461

3 Answers3

7

$$(a+b)^2 = (a+b) \Rightarrow a^2+ab+ba+b^2 = a+b$$ Since $a^2 = a$ and $b^2 = b$ we have that $ab = -ba$ by cancellation. Now $$(a+a) = (a+a)^2 = a^2+2a^2+a^2= a+a+a+a \Rightarrow a+a = 0 \text{ for all } a\in \mathbb{R}.$$ This says that each element is its own (additive) inverse and so $-ba = ba$ which finally gives $$ab = -ba = ba$$

fosho
  • 6,334
4

$-1=-1^2=1$

Now notice $x+y=(x+y)^2=x^2+xy+yx+y^2=x+xy+yx+y\iff xy=-yx=yx$

Asinomás
  • 105,651
-1

First, we show that every element of R is its own additive inverse. First, note that 2x = (2x)^2 = 4(x^2) = 2(x^2). This tells you 4x = 2x, and thus 2x = 0, for all x in R. Now, x + y = (x+y)^2 = x^2 + xy + yx + y^2 = x + y + xy + yx. From this we get xy + yx = 0, xy = -yx, which coupled with our lemma and the fact that additive inverses are unique gives xy = yx.

Vik78
  • 3,877