When we have to n×n matrices that can be made diagonal (maybe not in the same basis), is it true that the same works for their product?
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3Not necessarily, unless you also assume that $AB = BA$. – Tobias Kildetoft Feb 04 '16 at 09:58
2 Answers
That's not true in general.
let $A=\begin{pmatrix} 1&1\\0&\frac12 \end{pmatrix}$, $B=\begin{pmatrix}1&1\\0&2 \end{pmatrix}$, those 2 matrices are clearly diagonalizable since they have distinct eigenvalues, while $AB=\begin{pmatrix}1&3\\0&1\end{pmatrix}$ isn't.
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No, It's not true in general. Let $A=S_1\Lambda_1S_1^{-1}$ and and $B=S_2\Lambda_2 S_2^{-1}$, Then $AB=S_1\Lambda_1S_1^{-1}S_2\Lambda_2 S_2^{-1}$. So if $S_1=S_2$ then $AB=S_1\Lambda_1S_1^{-1}S_1\Lambda_2 S_1^{-1}$$=S_1\Lambda_1\Lambda_2 S_1^{-1}$ and we know that product of two diagonal matrix is a diagonal matrix. Next the question is when, $S_1=S_2$
In G. Strang's Linear Algebra and its Applications it is given that, if $A$ and $B$ are diagonalizable matrices of the form such that $AB=BA$, then their eigenvector matrices $S_1$ and $S_2$ (such that $A=S_1\Lambda_1S_1^{-1}$ and $B=S_2\Lambda_2 S_2^{-1}$) can be chosen to be equal: $S_1=S_2$.
You can find detailed proof in the following link: $AB=BA$ with same eigenvector matrix