Say we have a Riemannian manifold $(M, g)$ with vector field $X$ obeying the following:
- $g(X, X) = 1$; and
- the $1$-form $\varphi(Y) = g(Y, X)$ is $d$-closed, $d\varphi = 0$.
Does it necessarily following that the integral curves of $X$ are geodesics: $D_X X = 0$?