We have, $$\frac{1}{1+x^2}=\frac{A}{x-i}+\frac{B}{x+i} $$ From this we get $A=\frac{1}{2i}, B=-\frac{1}{2i}$. So, $$\frac{1}{1+x^2}=\frac{1}{2i}\left[\frac{1}{x-i} + \frac{1}{x+i} \right] $$ Now, \begin{align*}\left(\frac{1}{1+x^2}\right)^{(n)}&=\frac{1}{2i}\left[\left(\frac{1}{x-i} \right)^{(n)} + \left( \frac{1}{x+i}\right)^{(n)} \right] \\ &= \frac{1}{2i}\left[ \frac{(-1)^{n}n!}{(x-i)^{n+1}} - \frac{(-1)^{n}n!}{(x+i)^{n+1}}\right] \\ &= \frac{(-1)^{n}n!}{2i} \left( \frac{(x+i)^{n+1}-(x-i)^{n+1}}{(x^2+1)^{n+1}}\right) \end{align*} Then we have, $$ (x+i)^{n+1}=(x^2+1)^{\frac{n+1}{2}}\left(\cos((n+1)\cdot \mathrm{arccot}x) + i \sin((n+1)\mathrm{arccot}x) ) \right)$$ $$ (x-i)^{n+1}=(x^2+1)^{\frac{n+1}{2}}\left(\cos((n+1)\cdot \mathrm{arccot}(-x)) + i \sin((n+1)\mathrm{arccot}(-x)) ) \right)$$ But this is where I'm stuck, because we are not winning $\arctan$, maybe it is some elementary trygonometry identity that I'm missing.
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http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1783379/how-to-prove-this-equality – lab bhattacharjee May 15 '16 at 12:09
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Title doesn't make much sense – there's $n$ on the right side, not on the left. – Gerry Myerson May 15 '16 at 12:54
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@labbhattacharjee I updated the title – Gjekaks May 15 '16 at 13:00
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1@GerryMyerson I updated the title – Gjekaks May 15 '16 at 13:01
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HINT:
Let $x=r\cos y,1=r\sin y\implies\cot y=x\implies y=\text{arccot}(x)$
See Are $\mathrm{arccot}(x)$ and $\arctan(1/x)$ the same function?
$$(x-i)^m=r^m(\cos y-i\sin y)^m=(1+x^2)^{m/2}\left\{\cos(-y)+i\sin(-y)\right\}^m$$
Using De Moivre' Theorem,
$$\dfrac1{(x+i)^m}=\dfrac{(x-i)^m}{(x^2+1)^m}=\dfrac{(1+x^2)^{m/2}(\cos my-i\sin my)}{(x^2+1)^m}$$
Can you take it from here?
lab bhattacharjee
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I've already used $\mathrm{arccot}x=\arctan(1/x)$ and De Moivre's formula. – Gjekaks May 15 '16 at 14:46
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Because of $x+i=\sqrt{x^2+1}e^{i \arctan(x)}$ we get $\frac{1}{x+i}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{x^2+1}}e^{-i \arctan(x)}$. Then continue as you have done.
user90369
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