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Let

  • $\mathbb F\in\left\{\mathbb C,\mathbb R\right\}$
  • $X$ and $Y$ be normed $\mathbb F$-vector spaces
  • $X'$ denote the topological dual space of $X$
  • $\mathfrak L(X,Y)$ denote the space of bounded, linear operators from $X$ to $Y$
  • $\mathfrak B(X'\times Y,\mathbb F)$ be the space of bilinear forms on $X'\times Y$
  • $X\otimes Y$ denote the tensor product of $X$ and $Y$

Can we show that $X'\otimes Y$ can be embedded into $\mathfrak L(X,Y)$, i.e. that there is a

  1. injective,
  2. continuous and
  3. open

mapping $\iota:X'\otimes Y\to\iota(X'\otimes Y)$?

Clearly, we would need to choose a norm on $$X'\otimes Y:=\operatorname{span}\left\{\varphi\otimes y:(\varphi,y)\in X'\times Y\right\}\;,$$ where $$(\varphi\otimes y)(A):=A(\varphi,y)\;\;\;\text{for }B\in\mathfrak B(X'\times Y,\mathbb F)\;.$$ I think that the projective norm $$\pi(u):=\inf\left\{\sum_{i=1}^n\left\|\varphi_i\right\|_{X'}\left\|y_i\right\|_Y:u=\sum_{i=1}^n\varphi_i\otimes y_i\right\}$$ will do it.

My idea is to define $$(\iota u)(x):=\sum_{i=1}^n\varphi_i(x)y_i\;\;\;\text{for }x\in X\tag 1$$ for $u\in X'\otimes Y$ with $u=\sum_{i=1}^n\varphi_i\otimes y_i$.

This $\iota$ is obviously linear. Maybe we can show that it is bounded too (i.e. a bounded, linear operator). This would yield (2.). How can we show this and how can we show (1.) and (3.)?

0xbadf00d
  • 13,422
  • I'm a little confused as to what you are trying to show here? You need to first construct a map from $X'\times Y$ into $\mathfrak L(X,Y)$. The $\iota$ you define above is not well-defined, the image of such a map should be a linear map from $X$ into $Y$. – SamM May 18 '16 at 12:14
  • @SamM The elements of the image of $\iota$ are bounded, linear operators from $X$ to $Y$. Note that in $(1)$ each $\varphi_i$ is a bounded, linear operator from $X$ to $\mathbb F$. – 0xbadf00d May 18 '16 at 15:58
  • So each of the terms in (1) is a bounded linear functional multiplied by an element of $Y$? Such a multiplication (as it is written) is not well defined. You need to state how such a object should act on elements of $x$, you are trying to define a linear operator after all. – SamM May 18 '16 at 16:20
  • @SamM $\varphi_iy_i$ is the function $$X\to Y;,;;;x\mapsto\varphi_i(x)y_i;.$$ That's common notation for function objects, but I know that $\varphi_iy_i$ usually means $\varphi_i(y_i)$ (which is undefined here) in the context of operators. – 0xbadf00d May 18 '16 at 16:26
  • I see; in that case you are quite right. However, it would be better to define the action of such an object on an element of $X$, thus removing any ambiguity as to a definition. (For instance, stating $\iota(u)(x)=\sum_i \varphi_i(x)y_i$ ($x\in X$) make it clear that you are defining some kind of function, and not defining some action of elements in $X'$ on $Y$. – SamM May 18 '16 at 16:33
  • @SamM I've edited the question in order to prevent further confusion. – 0xbadf00d May 18 '16 at 16:36
  • Why would the elements of $X' \otimes Y$ would have a bounded norm under $\iota$ ? Are we implicitly considering a topology or a norm on $X' \otimes Y$ that would imply that ? (@SamM ) – reuns May 18 '16 at 16:39
  • @user1952009 I just want that $\iota$ is an embedding. It doesn't need to be a bounded, linear operator (but it would be a nice bonus). If you know the answer to the question when we choose an other norm on $X'\otimes Y$, that would be fine for me too. – 0xbadf00d May 18 '16 at 16:44
  • This is a detail to be considered. You should consider $||\varphi(x)y||=|\varphi(x)|,||y||\leq||\varphi||,||x||,||y||$. – SamM May 18 '16 at 16:46
  • no my comment/question was : what is the definition of $X' \otimes Y$ ? is it a vector space ? a topological vector space ? a normed space ? is it complete ? what norm are you considering ? are you considering only finite linear combinations of $u_i \otimes v_i$ ? – reuns May 18 '16 at 16:46
  • One can probably only consider the projective tensor norm. One first needs to show there is a bounded linear operator from $X'\times Y$ into $\mathfrak L(X,Y)$, the extension to the projective tensor product will then follow by the universal property. – SamM May 18 '16 at 16:48
  • @user1952009 $X'\otimes Y$ equipped with $\pi$ is a normed $\mathbb F$-vector space. The definition of the set $X'\otimes Y$ is given in the question. – 0xbadf00d May 18 '16 at 16:58
  • so when you write $X' \otimes Y$ it denotes in fact $X' \otimes Y, |.|_{X' \otimes Y} = \pi$. now if by definition $X' \otimes Y$ contains only finite linear combinations of $\varphi_i \otimes y_j$, it is clear that they'll have a finite norm for $\pi$ and for $\iota$. but if you allow also infinite linear combinations, you have to show that $\pi(u)$ is finite $\implies$ $|\iota(u)|$ is finite, I'm not sure how ? – reuns May 18 '16 at 17:36

1 Answers1

0

To see that the linear map $\iota$ defined by (1) is injective, first notice that for any representation $u=\sum^n_{j=1}\phi_j\otimes y_j$ of $u\in X'\otimes Y$ one may assume that the $y_j$'s are linearly independent by simply redefining the $\phi_j$'s. Once this is done, we have that $\iota(u)=0$ implies that $\phi_j=0$ for each $j=1,\ldots,n$ and therefore $u=0$, as desired. This allows us to identify $X'\otimes Y$ as a vector space with the subspace of finite-rank elements of $\mathfrak{L}(X,Y)$.

Moreover, $\iota$ is certainly continuous, for if $T=\sum^n_{j=1}\phi_j(\cdot)y_j$ is a finite-rank linear operator from $X$ to $Y$ (so that $\phi_j\in X'$, $y_j\in Y$, $j=1,\ldots,n$), then $$\|T\|\doteq\sup_{\|x\|=1}\|Tx\|\leq\sum^n_{j=1}\sup_{\|x\|=1}\|\phi_j(x)y_j\|=\sum^n_{j=1}\|\phi_j\|\cdot\|y_j\|\ .$$

Finally, $\iota(X'\otimes Y)$ is certainly a $F_\sigma$ subset of $\mathfrak{L}(X,Y)$ but it cannot be open in general unless $Y$ is finite dimensional, for its (operator) norm closure is contained in the (operator norm closed) subspace of compact linear operators from $X$ to $Y$. After all, the image of the unit ball of $X$ under a finite-rank linear operator is a bounded subset of a finite dimensional normed vector space and thus relatively compact. Therefore, the map $\iota$ cannot be open if $Y$ is infinite dimensional.

Remark: The completion of $X'\otimes Y$ with respect to the projective norm $\pi$ can be identified through $\iota$ with the subspace of nuclear (i.e. trace-class) linear operators from $X$ to $Y$, which are of course compact due to the above inequality.

Remark 2: As a nomenclature aside, the projective norm $\pi$ in finite dimensions is not the Frobenius norm (more usually called "Hilbert-Schmidt norm" in infinite dimensional Hilbert spaces), but the Ky Fan norm (more usually called "nuclear norm" in infinite dimensions). They are equivalent when $X,Y$ (and therefore $X'\otimes Y$) are finite dimensional, of course, but no longer so in the infinite-dimensional case, for instance in the completion of the subspace of finite-rank linear operators in the strongest of both norms. In the case $X=Y$, the nuclear norm is dominated by the trace norm, and both coincide if and only if $X$ is topologically isomorphic to a Hilbert space (see comments below for details), which implies that in this case the nuclear norm is strictly stronger than the Hilbert-Schmidt norm in infinite dimensions.

  • how do you see that the closure of $X' \otimes Y$ for $|u| = \pi(u)$ becomes by $\iota$ the space of compact operators ? – reuns May 18 '16 at 18:11
  • no ok, it is obvious that it is a subset of the space of compact operators, since if $\iota(u)$ is not compact then $u = \sum_{i=1}^\infty \varphi_i \otimes y_i$ where $\pi(\varphi_i \otimes y_i) \not \to 0$ and $\pi(u)$ cannot be finite – reuns May 18 '16 at 18:15
  • This follows from the following, standard characterization of compact operators: $T\in\mathfrak{L}(X,Y)$ is compact iff $T$ is the norm limit of a sequence of finite rank operators. – Pedro Lauridsen Ribeiro May 18 '16 at 18:16
  • and we can think to $\pi$ (the norm that the OP defined on $X' \otimes Y$) as some sort of Frobenius norm on $X\to Y$ – reuns May 18 '16 at 18:22
  • Sorry, what I said in my previous comment is true only if $X$ and $Y$ are Hilbert spaces (Enflo provided a counterexample for Banach spaces). I'll fix that in my answer. In any case, the claim that $\iota$ is not open in general still stands - since the subspace of compact operators is norm closed, the closure of the subspace of finite rank operators is contained in the subspace of compact operators. – Pedro Lauridsen Ribeiro May 18 '16 at 18:22
  • @user1952009 $\pi$ is not a Frobenius norm if $X$ or $Y$ is infinite-dimensional. Please see the second remark I've just added to my answer above. – Pedro Lauridsen Ribeiro May 26 '16 at 15:32
  • did you just copy wikipedia without understanding ? the trace norms and the Frobenius norms are closely related to the $L_{p,q}$ norm in some basis i.e. to the entrywise norms, being highly dependent of the rank of the operator. but here there is a $\min$ in his $\pi$ norm, that makes it very different, that's why I said "some sort of" Frobenius norm. (if $X = X$ a Hilbert space, you can probably reduce his norm to the Frobenius norm, using the SVD of the operator) – reuns May 26 '16 at 15:47
  • I still think it's misleading to think of $\pi$ as a Frobenius norm. The SVD representation of the Schatten $p$-norms of compact operators between Hilbert spaces already pressuposes we are taking an infimum, due to the min-max theorem. Even so, the trace norm ($p=1$) is stronger than the Hilbert-Schmidt norm ($p=2$) in infinite dimensions, since the trace-class and Hilbert-Schmidt operator ideals in $\mathfrak{L}(H)$ are different but are the closure of the subspace of finite-rank linear operators in the Hilbert space $H$ in the trace and Hilbert-Schmidt norms respectively. – Pedro Lauridsen Ribeiro May 26 '16 at 16:47
  • I don't understand what you are saying.... yes obviously all the entrywise norms define some closure of the finite-rank operators. so what ? and I don't get what you are saying on min-max and whatever. – reuns May 26 '16 at 16:52
  • are you saying that his $\pi$ norm reduces to the https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Schatten_norm even when $p \ne 2$ ? when $p = 2$ and $X = Y = H$ I think his $\pi$ norm reduces to $\sum_i \sigma_i$ where $\sigma_i$ are the singular values of the operator (supposed to be finite rank, or compact with $l_1$ singular values) – reuns May 26 '16 at 16:56
  • The $\pi$ norm is the Schatten $p$-norm for $p=1$ in the case of Hilbert sapces, so the sequence of singular values of a compact operator $T$ should indeed be in $l_1$ in order for it to have finite $\pi$ norm. Good references for the subject in the particular case of Hilbert spaces (including the min-max theorem) are the book of B. Simon, Trace Ideals and Their Applications (2nd. ed., AMS, 2005), Sections VI.6, pp. 206-213 of Volume I and XIII.1, pp. 75-79 of Volume IV of the book series of M. Reed and B. Simon, Methods of Modern Mathematical Physics (Academic Press, 1978, 1980). – Pedro Lauridsen Ribeiro May 26 '16 at 18:02
  • yes I meant the Schatten norm with $p=1$ (but with $X =Y= l^2$) we agree. what is the min-max theorem ? – reuns May 26 '16 at 18:11
  • https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Min-max_theorem . Have a look as well at the above references, where the subject is discussed in depth. – Pedro Lauridsen Ribeiro May 26 '16 at 18:12
  • yes this theorem is obvious once you proved the SVD (in the way I did here). but do you have any idea for his $\pi$ norm when $X = Y = l^p, p \ne 2$ ? – reuns May 26 '16 at 18:16
  • It may be obvious but it's quite useful in applications, specially for variational methods. For general Banach spaces $X,Y$, a variant of the min-max formula for singular values is taken as the latter's definition (being then also called approximation numbers). However, generally $\pi$ is only shown to be bounded above by an universal constant times the sum of all approximation numbers. If the latter coincides with $\pi$ and $X=Y$, then $X$ must be topologically isomorphic to a Hilbert space (see W.B. Johnson, H. König, B. Maurey and J.R. Retherford, J. Funct. Anal. 32 (1979) 353-380). – Pedro Lauridsen Ribeiro May 26 '16 at 21:10