I assume you mean this holds for all $x>0$.
- The factor $\frac{1}{x}$ on both sides is not really helping, since for any $x\neq 0$ your statement is equivalent to
$$
\frac{\pi}{2} - \arctan \frac{1}{x} = \arctan x, \qquad x > 0 \tag{1}
$$
- Now, rearrange the terms: (1) becomes equivalent to
$$
\frac{\pi}{2} = \arctan \frac{1}{x} + \arctan x, \qquad x > 0 \tag{2}
$$
which is a known identity.
One way (maybe not the most elegant) to prove this last identity is to observe that the function $f\colon (0,\infty)\to \mathbb{R}$ defined by $f(x) = \arctan \frac{1}{x} + \arctan x$ is differentiable, and (using the derivative $\arctan' x = \frac{1}{1+x^2}$) that $f'(x) = 0$ for all $x>0$. So $f$ is constant, and since $$\lim_{x\to\infty} f(x) = \arctan 0 + \lim_{x\to\infty}\arctan x = \lim_{x\to\infty}\arctan x = \frac{\pi}{2}$$ you get the result.