Sequences that are eventually constant are convergent, so in every space each point is the limit of a convergent sequence. What you mean, I suspect, is that no point is the limit of a sequence of other points. Showing this would indeed show that $X$ is not first countable, but in fact it’s not true here. For $n\in\Bbb Z^+$ let $x^{(n)}=\langle x_k^{(n)}:k\in\Bbb N\rangle$, where
$$x_k^{(n)}=\begin{cases}
n,&\text{if }k=0\\
0,&\text{otherwise}\;.
\end{cases}$$
It’s easy to check that $\langle x^{(n)}:n\in\Bbb Z^+\rangle$ converges to the zero sequence $z=\langle 0,0,0,\ldots\rangle$ in $X$, even though each $x^{(n)}\in X\setminus\{z\}$.
However, it’s possible to show directly that $X$ is not first countable. Your cardinality argument is not sufficient as it stands: it shows that each point of $X$ has a local base of cardinality at most $\mathfrak{c}=2^\omega$, but you would need further argument to establish that no smaller local base exists.
Added: In fact it’s consistent with the usual axioms of set theory that $2^\omega=\omega_2$, and each point of $X$ has a local base of cardinality $\omega_1$: this is the case in models in which the dominating number $\mathfrak{d}=\omega_1$ and the continuum $\mathfrak{c}=\omega_2$.
In the second half of this answer I used this approach to show a more general result:
For each $n\in\Bbb N$ let $X_n$ be a first countable space with a non-isolated point $p_n$. Let $X$ be the box product of the spaces $X_n$, and let $p=\langle p_n:n\in\Bbb N\rangle\in X$; then $X$ is not first countable at $p$.
Since no point of $\Bbb R$ is isolated, this shows that $X$ is not first countable at any point. You might find it instructive to try to adapt that argument to the specific case of the space $X$.
If $Y$ is any space, and $p\in Y$ is not an isolated point, we can always find a net in $Y\setminus\{p\}$ that converges to $p$. I’ll do this in general and let you adapt that to the specific case in your problem.
Let $\mathscr{B}$ be any nbhd base at $p$, and let $\mathscr{D}=\{\langle B,x\rangle:x\in B\setminus\{p\}\in\mathscr{B}\}$. For $\langle B,x\rangle,\langle C,y\rangle\in\mathscr{D}$ let $\langle B,x\rangle\preceq\langle C,y\rangle$ if and only if $B\supseteq C$; then $\langle\mathscr{D},\preceq\rangle$ is a directed set. (Check this!) Let $\nu$ be the net
$$\nu:\mathscr{D}\to Y:\langle B,x\rangle\mapsto x\;;$$
I leave it to you to verify that $\nu$ converges to $p$.