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I am working on the following exercise from Lawson's Topology: A Geometric Approach:

Apply Invariance of Domain

(If $U$ is an open subset of $\mathbb{R}^n$ and $f:U\rightarrow\mathbb{R}^n$ is $1$-$1$ and continuous, then $f$ is an open map)

to prove that if $M$ and $N$ are $n$-manifolds and $f:M\rightarrow N$ is $1$-$1$ and continuous then $f$ is an open map.

I am really stuck. I can't see how to get a map from an open set in $\mathbb{R}^n$ to $\mathbb{R}^n$ involved to apply Invariance of Domain. Any help is greatly appreciated.

1234
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1 Answers1

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Hint: You want to show that $f(U)$ is open in $N$ for all open $U$ in $M$. Note that as $f$ is continuous, for all $x\in U$, there are coordinate charts $U_x \subset U$ so that $f(U_x)$ lie in a coordinate chart $V_x$ of $N$. And you have

$$U = \bigcup_{x\in U} U_x$$

  • Lawson doesn't mention "coordinate charts" so I am not sure what this means. I know that for each $x\in U$ there is a nbd $U_x$ that is homeomorphic to an open set in $\mathbb{R}^n$. Then $f(U)=f(\bigcup\limits_{x\in U} U_x)=\bigcup\limits_{x\in U}f(U_x)$. Now what can I say about the sets $f(U_x)$? – 1234 Jun 23 '16 at 15:56
  • @1234 : $f(U_x) \subset V_x$ and $V_x$ is also homeomophic to an open set in $\mathbb R^n$. –  Jun 23 '16 at 15:58
  • I am guessing your $V_x$ is defined as: For each $x\in U$ there is a nbd $V_x$ of $f(x)$ that is homeomorphic to an open set in $\mathbb{R}^n$. But then how do we know that $f(U_x)\subset V_x$? – 1234 Jun 23 '16 at 16:10
  • @1234 $f$ is continuous, so $f^{-1}(V_x)$ is open, pick $U_x$ small so that $U_x \subset f^{-1}(V_x)$. –  Jun 23 '16 at 16:57
  • Ok, so now we want to show that each $f(U_x)$ is open in $N$, but I still don't see how we can apply Invariance of Domain. I am sorry I am having so much trouble with this, I am just not getting it. – 1234 Jun 23 '16 at 17:57
  • Note that you can think of $f : U_x \to V_x$ as a mapping between open sets in $\mathbb R^n$. @1234 –  Jun 24 '16 at 15:11
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    Ah! I wanted to say this from the beginning but I couldn't think of how to make this precise. We can easily get a continuous 1-1 map between our open sets in $\mathbb{R}^n$ using f and the homeomorphisms we have. Then we can apply invariance of domain to get the result. Man, frustration really get's in the way of an easy solution! – 1234 Jun 24 '16 at 17:46