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I need to write an equation of a nonsingular curve in a projective space that is not birational to $\mathbb{P}^1.$

The answer in this post seems to give a solution to my question. Namely, it says that the curve $C:=V(f) \subset \mathbb{C}\mathbb P^2$ given by $$f(x,y,z) = x^d + y^d + z^d, \ d \in \mathbb N,$$ is smooth with geometric genus $g(X) = \frac {(d-1)*(d-2)}{2}$. The curve X is not rational iff $g(X) > 0$, i.e. iff degree $d > 2$.

But I don`t know a proof of a claim made there "curve X is not rational iff $g(X) > 0$". Can someone help me out, please? Alternatively, is there more elementary example of a smooth curve which is not birational to $\mathbb{C}\mathbb{P}^1$?

Mike
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2 Answers2

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The following example is elementary and you can find the main argument in Klaus Hulek's ''Elementare algebraische Geometrie'' in the introduction. I add some details.

Fix a complex number $\lambda \in \mathbb{C} \setminus \{0,1\}$. Define $$f(x,y,z) = y^2 z -x(x-z)(x- \lambda z)$$ and let $X := V(f) \subset \mathbb{P}^2$. I claim that $X$ is not rational.

Let $$g(x,y) := f(x,y,1) = y^2 - x(x-1)(x- \lambda).$$ Let $U_z := \{[x:y:z] \in \mathbb{P}^2 \, : \, z \neq 0\}$ and let $\varphi : U_z \rightarrow \mathbb{C}^2$ with $\varphi([x:y:z]) =(x/z,y/z)$. Then $\varphi(U_z \cap X) = V(g) =: Y$ and hence $U_z \cap X$ is isomorphic to $Y$, so that $Y$ is birational to $X$.

You can check that $Y$ is irreducible and nonsingular (here we use $\lambda \neq 0,1$), so the same holds for $X \cap U_z$. We have $X \cap (\mathbb{P}^2\setminus U_z) = [0:1:0] \in U_y$ and one can check that $[0:1:0]$ is not a singular point of $X$. It follows that $X$ is a nonsingular irreducible projective curve, which is birational to $Y$ and hence it suffices to show that $Y$ is not rational.

Let $K:= Q(\mathbb{C}[x,y]/(g))$ be the field of rational functions on $Y$ (where $Q(A)$ denotes the field of fractions of an integral domain $A$). Suppose $Y$ were rational. Then there would be a field isomorphism $\Phi: K \rightarrow \mathbb{C}(t)$. Let $\varphi(t) := \Phi(x)$ and $\psi(t):= \Phi(y)$ in $\mathbb{C}(t)$ (where instead of $x$ we could pedantically write $\frac{x+(f)}{1+(f)}$). Note that not both of $\varphi(t)$ and $\psi(t)$ can be constant, as this would contradict the surjectivity of $\Phi$. We have the identity $$ 0=\Phi(g(x,y)) = g(\Phi(x), \Phi(y)) = g(\varphi(t), \psi(t)) $$ in $\mathbb{C}(t)$. So we will obtain a contradiction by showing that whenever we have rational functions $\varphi(t)$ and $\psi(t)$ satisfying $g(\varphi(t), \psi(t)) = 0$, one of them has to be constant.

Write $\varphi = p/q$ and $\psi = r/s$ with coprime polynomials $p,q \in \mathbb{C}[t]$ and coprime polynomials $r,s \in \mathbb{C}[t]$. Then

$$ (r/s)^2 = (p/q)((p/q) -1)((p/q)- \lambda)$$

or

$$r^2q^3 = s^2p(p-q)(p-\lambda q) \in \mathbb{C}[t]$$

Now $s^2$ divides the LHS, but not $r^2$ hence $s^2$ divides $q^3$. Similalry, $q^3$ divides the RHS, but not $p(p-q)(p - \lambda q)$ hence $q^3$ divides $s^2$. This implies that $a s^2 = q^3$ for some $a \in \mathbb{C}^\times$. Hence $q$ is a square in $\mathbb{C}[t]$. Replacing $q^3$ with $as^2$ in the displayed equation we see that

$$ar^2 = p(p-q)(p- \lambda q)$$

The polynomials $p$, $p-q$ and $p - \lambda q$ are coprime to each other but their product is a square. Consequently, all of $p$, $p-q$ and $p- \lambda q$ have to be squares in $\mathbb{C}[t]$ (and also $q$ as noted before). We may now invoke Lemma 0.8 on page 7 of Hulek's book ''Elementare algebraische Geometrie'' (where the heart of this answer is taken from). I would like to repharse it slightly as follows.

Lemma: Suppose $p,q \in \mathbb{C}[t]$ are coprime polynomials and suppose there are four non-zero vectors $(a_1, b_1), \dots, (a_4, b_4) \in \mathbb{C}^2$ defining distinct elements of $\mathbb{P}^1$ such that the polynomials $a_i p + b_i q$ are all squares in $\mathbb{C}[t]$. Then $p$ and $q$ are constant.

Note that since $\lambda \neq 0,1$ the Lemma may be applied here.

m.s
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Note that two nonsingular projective curves are birational if and only if they're isomorphic. For, if $f: C\dashrightarrow C'$ is a birational map between two such curves then $f$ and $f^{-1}$ can be extended to the whole $C$, resp. $C'$, thus $f$ is an isomorphism (see Rational map on smooth projective curve ). Since two isomorphic curves have the same genus and since $g(\Bbb P^1)=0$, it follows that a nonsingular projective curve of non-zero genus is irrational.

paf
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  • Thanks! But I don`t actually see how your first statement is proved in the linked question. If possible, please include the proof in your answer, or give me a reference to read. Also why is $g(\mathbb{P}^1)=0$? I know that $\mathbb{P}^1$ is diffeo to $S^2$. Is this the reason? – Mike Aug 19 '16 at 19:21
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    I made an edit above to clarify how I use the (important) theorem of the linked question. – paf Aug 19 '16 at 19:24
  • Ok, that part is clear. I also edited my earlier comment, in case you didn't notice. One more thing: why is $g(\mathbb{P}^1)=0$? I know that $\mathbb{P}^1$ is diffeomorphic to $S^2$, if this could be helpful to me. – Mike Aug 19 '16 at 20:39
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    It's a smooth curve because it's locally isomorphic to $\Bbb A^1$, i.e. $\Bbb C$ which is smooth. Is it a sufficient explanation for you or not? For 2), what's your definition of the genus of a complex curve? If it's the genus of the topological underlying surfac, then your argument is OK. – paf Aug 19 '16 at 20:43
  • The genus of a projective curve of degree $d$ is defined as $(d-1)(d-2)/2$. But I don't get why $S^2$ is projective curve because the equation $f(x,y)=x^2+y^2-1$ that defines it is not homogeneous. – Mike Aug 19 '16 at 20:50
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    $S^2$ isn't a projective curve, I said only that $\Bbb P^1$ is homeomorphic to $S^2$ (in the standard topology, not in the Zariski one). $\Bbb P^1$ is simply a projective line of $\Bbb P^2$, i.e. it's defined by a homogeneous equation of degree $d=1$, hence $g(\Bbb P^1)=0$. – paf Aug 19 '16 at 20:54
  • Dear paf, thank you so much. I am new to all these things. So please allow me to ask one more question: Can I take the definition of genus to be $(d-1)(d-2)/2$? Or is this a theorem one proves while regarding the definition to be something else? – Mike Aug 19 '16 at 21:01
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    Good question! If you're a beginner, you can see this formula as a definition for plane smooth projective complex curves. You can also see it as the topological genus of the underlying 2-dim. topological manifold and hence we can prove the formula (see Griffiths-Harris, Principles of alg.geom.) or as the dimension of the space of global differential forms (http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/45434/proving-that-the-genus-of-a-nonsingular-plane-curve-is-fracd-1d-22) – paf Aug 19 '16 at 22:16
  • @paf Is there an obvious way to see that two plane curves of different degrees are non-isomorphic? More specifically, if your define genus as just being $(d-1)(d-2)/2$ is this obviously an isomorphism invariant? Of course, if you can phrase it cohomologically this is clear, but it's not obvious to me otherwise. – Alex Youcis Aug 20 '16 at 13:51
  • @paf, could you explain more about why f and its inverse can be extended to the whole of C and C'? I am still trying to get how f can be isomorphic. – Mike Aug 20 '16 at 21:04
  • @paf: ok, comments deleted. – Georges Elencwajg Aug 20 '16 at 21:07