I try to prove it by contradiction. If the claim is incorrect, then there exist some $f_i=p_i/q_i$, where $p_i,q_i\in \mathbb F_q[x]$, such that $$ \mathbb F_q(x)=\mathbb F_q[f_1,\cdots, f_k] $$
So $x$ is a combination of $f_i$'s. And, I don't know how to continue from this. Please help.