Please help me process this is any sane way.
If we look in Baby Rudin we find the integral as:
Common value of: $$\overline{\int_{a}^{b}}f \ dx = \inf U(P,f) \quad, \qquad \underline{\int_{a}^{b}} f \,dx = \sup L(P,f) $$ if these values exist and are equal. Here the $\inf$ and $\sup$ are taken over all partitions, where we have, in the above: $$ U(P,f) = \sum_{i=1}^nM_i\Delta x_i \quad, \qquad L(P,f) = \sum_{i=1}^nm_i\Delta x_i $$ where $m_i$ and $M_i$ are the $\sup$ and $\inf$ of $f$ on each respective subinterval.
When we calculate integrals, we dont see anything like this, and even when calculating Riemann sums, we put $\Delta x_i = \frac{b-a}{n}$ and let $n \to \infty$.
Question: How does this sum align with Rudins definition? This is supposed to be the $\inf$ over all partitions, how does fixing $\Delta x_i = \frac{b-a}{n}$ and letting $n \to \infty$ allow me to garantee that this infinite sum equals that $\inf / \sup$?. Also in calculations, people fix a point as the (often) rightmost point in that interval, but that is not the $\sup$ over that interval!! Whats going on here?