I am looking for an explicit example of two complete inequivalent norms.
Given a Banach space, I know how to explicitly construct an inequivalent complete norm. However, I am looking for an explicit example.
Edit 1: I came across the following here Norm equivalence and Banach spaces
However, it does not hold that if two spaces are Banach spaces that their norm would be equivalent. Take for example the space of absolutely summable sequences and take $\sum|x_n|$ as one norm, since it is absolutely summable also the sum $\sum\frac{|x_n|}{n}$ would be convergent, but now you can consider the sequence $\delta_j$ (that's zero everywhere, except its $j$th term is $1$). You have that $\|\delta_j\|_1=1$, but $\|\delta_j\|_b = \frac1j$ you can't have the equivalence between these norms.
I want to know how the space is complete with respect to both norms.
Edit 2: Daniel Fischer explained in the comments why the above example is wrong. So, I'm still looking for an explicit example.
Edit 3: The question I asked here: Complete Inequivalent Norms asks something completely different. I'm not sure why everyone thinks it is a duplicate.