I have a function $f(x)$ and $g(x) = f(f(x))$ both from domain D to range D.
$f$ and $g$ are bijective. Furthermore, $f$ is increasing and bounded above by a polynomial.
I think I read that if there is some $n$ where $g^{(n)}(x) = 0$ for all $x$, then $g$ is a polynomial.
Is this enough to assume $f$ is a polynomial?