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From differential topology, we know that every smooth map between smooth manifolds is continuous. But for the definition of holomorphic functions between Riemann surfaces as follows enter image description here

I do not think that the map is guaranteed to be continuous since it does not have the critical condition that $f(U_n) \subset V_m$.

Keith
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  • I'm not looking carefully, but any definition of holomorphic function that doesn't imply the function is continuous is an incorrect definition. –  Nov 08 '16 at 03:33
  • Your definition is valid and of course implies that the function is continuous, as (all) its derivatives, so that it is holomorphic and analytic – reuns Nov 08 '16 at 03:49
  • For defining analytic functions $S_1 \supset U \to V \subset S_2$ you need to define analytic functions $S_1 \supset U \to W \subset \mathbb{C}$ and $\mathbb{C} \supset W \to V \subset S_2$. Those definitions ensure that an analytic function $S_1 \supset U \to V \subset S_2$ transfers as a set of analytic functions $\mathbb{C} \supset U_n \to V_n \subset \mathbb{C}$ where $U_n,V_n$ are the images of $U,V$ by $f_n,g_n$ – reuns Nov 08 '16 at 03:54
  • Why the above definition implies that analytic functions are continuos? Can you be more specific? – Keith Nov 08 '16 at 04:28

1 Answers1

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This is a subtle point that many authors overlook.

It depends on precisely what you mean by saying that a function $f$ defined on an arbitrary subset $A\subset \mathbb C$ is analytic. One common definition is that the domain $A$ must be an open subset of $\mathbb C$ and $f$ has a complex derivative everywhere in $A$ (or is given locally by convergent power series). Using this definition, saying that $g_m\circ f \circ f_n^{-1}\colon f_n (U_n \cap f^{-1}(V_m))\to g_m(f(U_n)\cap V_m)$ is analytic includes the tacit requirement that $ f_n (U_n \cap f^{-1}(V_m))$ is open in $\mathbb C$ for each $m$ and $n$. Using this interpretation, if $f\colon S_1\to S_2$ is analytic according to the quoted definition, then it is automatically continuous.

To see why, let $p\in S_1$ be arbitrary. There exist charts $U_n$ containing $p$ and $V_m$ containing $f(p)$, and then $$ f_n (U_n \cap f^{-1}(V_m)) \text{ is open in $\mathbb C$} \implies U_n \cap f^{-1}(V_m)\text{ is open in $S_1$} $$ (because $f_n$ is a homeomorphism onto its image). Restricted to the open set $U_n \cap f^{-1}(V_m)$, $f$ is given by the formula $$ f= g_m^{-1} \circ \big( g_m \circ f \circ f_n^{-1}\big) \circ f_n^{-1}, $$ which is a composition of continuous maps. Thus $f$ is continuous in a neighborhood of each point, and hence continuous on $S_1$.

If, on the other hand, your interpretation of "analytic on a subset of $\mathbb C$" does not necessarily entail being defined on an open subset, then an analytic map by this definition might not be smooth. For example, one might define a function $f$ to be analytic on a subset $A\subset\mathbb C$ if each point of $A$ has a neighborhood $U$ in $\mathbb C$ such that $f$ is equal to a convergent power series on $U\cap A$.

Using this interpretation, a function $f\colon S_1\to S_2$ that is analytic by the quoted definition need not be continuous. Here's a counterexample. Let $S_1 = S_2 = \mathbb C$, with the analytic structure given by, say, the countable collection of disks with rational centers and radius $1/2$, and with $f_n$ and $g_m$ the respective identity maps. Define $f\colon S_1\to S_2$ by $$ f(z) = \begin{cases} 1, & \operatorname{Re}z\ge 0,\\ 0, & \operatorname{Re}z <0. \end{cases} $$ Then for each $m$ and $n$ for which $U_n \cap f^{-1}(V_m)\ne\varnothing$, the composite map $g_m\circ f \circ f_n^{-1}$ is either identically $0$ or identically $1$ (but not always defined on an open set), so it is analytic by our broader definition. But $f$ is not continuous.

Jack Lee
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  • Thank you very much, Prof.Lee. I noticed this question exactly because I am reading your Introduction to Smooth Manifolds which elaborates on this matter. – Keith Nov 13 '16 at 03:32