I know that the kernel is always normal but how to prove or show that $A_n$ is the kernel?
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Think of the definition of $A_n$, and think of some "parity" getting involved. Of course, proving the well-definition and homomorphism is the important part, the kernel comes easily. – Sarvesh Ravichandran Iyer Nov 08 '16 at 09:19
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3$\ker(sgn)=A_n$ has been proved here, see Moritz comment. – Dietrich Burde Nov 08 '16 at 10:48
1 Answers
Try building an explicit homomorphism
$$\phi : S_n \longrightarrow \{-1, 1\} $$
Let us show that $\phi(\pi_i) = sgn(\pi_i)$ is an homomorphism as asked.
Remember that any permutation $\pi_i$ can be decomposed in a number of transpositions. Although this decomposition is not unique, it can be shown that if some permutation $\pi_a$ has a decomposition with an even amount of transpositions, then all decompositions of $\pi_a$ must use an even number of transpositions and $\pi_a$ is said to be even. Analogously, if a permutation $\pi_b$ has a decomposition with an odd number of transpositions, then all decompositions of $\pi_b$ have an odd number of transpositions and $\pi_b$ is said to be odd.
When then define $sgn(\pi_i)$ as $1$ if $\pi_i$ is even and $-1$ if $\pi_i$ is odd.
I leave it to you as an exercise to show that $sgn(\pi_i \circ \pi_j) = sgn(\pi_i)\times sgn(\pi_j)$
Now all you have to do is show that this homomorphism has $A_n$ as kernel.
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Do we only have to consider the one from above that is either odd or even – Manson Nov 08 '16 at 10:25
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