$2n$ people consisting of $n$ couples are randomly paired together. What is the probability that a particular woman gets paired with her husband?
I know that the answer is $\frac{1}{2n-1}$ because a woman is equally likely to be paired with any of the other $2n-1$ people that are not her, and only one of them is her husband. However, when I first tried to solve this problem, I tried the following:
There are $\frac{(2n)!}{2^n}$ possible ways of making the $n$ couples. Likewise, there should be $\frac{(2n-2)!}{2^{n-1}}$ ways of coupling all the $2n-2$ people that are not the particular woman and her husband. Therefore, the probability of the woman getting paired with her husband should be $\frac{1}{n(2n-1)}$.
My question is: why am I getting this extra $n$ term in the denominator?