Fermat's Little Theorem states that (acc to Gallian book)
$a^p \mod p= a \mod p$.
Does it mean that we get the same remainder when both $a^p$ and $a$ are divided by some prime $p$? I am quite confused about this statement. Through wikipedia, I read $a^p \equiv a \mod p$. Kindly help. I am new to this number system topic.