I was playing around with the series $f(N)=\frac{1}{N}\sum_{k=1}^{N}\frac{\phi(k)}{k}$ and I found with Wolfram that $f(10,000)=0.607938$, which I noticed was very close to $\frac{6}{\pi^2}$.
I am led to make the following
Conjecture: $\lim_{N \to +\infty}\frac{1}{N}\sum_{k=1}^{N}\frac{\phi(k)}{k}=\frac{6}{\pi^2}$
Well, is it true?
Note that its obvious that the sum is bounded above by $1$ (since $\phi(k)/k<1$), so it definitely doesn't diverge to infinity. Its also almost always decreasing. So it most likely converges.