I am trying to prove that $\frac{1}{k+1} \le\ln(1+\frac{1}{k}) \le \frac{1}{k}$. This showed up as a known fact in a proof for $(1+\frac{1}{k})^k = e$ as $k$ goes to infinity, so I would like to prove it without using that fact.
I tried to prove the first part of the inequality by using another known inequality (one which I am comfortable proving):
$1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+...+\frac{1}{k} >\ln(1+k)$
Let $a$ denote $1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+...+\frac{1}{k-2}$
$a+\frac{1}{k-1}+\frac{1}{k} >\ln(1+k)$
Scaling this down 1 term:
$a + \frac{1}{k-1} >\ln(k)$
Subtracting the second inequality from the first, we get:
$\frac{1}{k} >\ln(1+\frac{1}{k})$
However, this seems to contradict the statement I'm trying to prove. Could anyone help?