Unfortunately it is not correct; Have you ever heard of the gambler's fallacy? This situation is pretty similar to what happens in a casino:
If you go to a casino and you pass over the roulette, and you notice that before you got there, the roulette rolled $15$ black numbers in a row, wouldn't you be tempted to bet everything on red? Many people would, but that is wrong! Why??
The roulette doesn't remember what numbers already got out; Every time you roll it, it does not care about what has already been rolled. The odds never change; There are still 18 black numbers and 18 red numbers, thus the probability of rolling a red number will always be $\frac12$ regardless of how many black numbers already came out in a row.
The same thing for pregnant women. You can ask yourself this: if I am to get 2 kids, what are the odds of having 2 boys? If the boy-girl ratio is $50:50$, then that would be $\frac12\cdot\frac12 = \frac14$. Assume one boy was born. What is the probability of having a second boy? Well, when the mother gets pregnant, there is a $50\%$ chance she is carrying a boy, $50\%$ chance she is carrying a girl, so there is $50\%$ chance you are going to have 2 boys! That probability would be expressed as "What are the odds of having 2 boys, given that I have 1 boy already": this is what we call a conditional probability, which is $P(A | B)$, read as "the probability of happening $A$ given that $B$ happened", and even has some nice formula:
$$P(A | B) = \frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}$$
For that problem statement, you must calculate
$$P(\text{getting a second boy} |\ \text{I have one boy already})$$
Which, by the formula, becomes:
$$P(\text{getting a second boy} |\ \text{I have one boy already}) = \\
\frac{P(\text{having a second boy}\cap\text{had one boy first})}{P(\text{had one boy first})}$$