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I understand that it makes perfect sense to define a 2-dimensional delta function on the complex plane by $$\int dz\wedge d\bar{z}\delta(z)\delta(\bar{z})=1.$$ However, is there any chance to define a 1-dimensional holomorphic delta function $\delta(z)$, which equals to 1 under certain kind of integration, other than $\frac{1}{2\pi i}\frac{1}{z}$?

  • @eyeballfrog I would expect it has the usual intuition of the Dirac delta function: mostly vanished, singular at the origin, and finite with a certain kind of integration. – WunderNatur Jul 24 '17 at 19:52
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    Delta is not a function but a distribution. It is defined by $\delta(f) = f(0)$. This definition holds of course in $\mathbb{R}^n$ for any $n$. So there is nothing special about the complex plan. One can prove that this distribution CANNOT be written as the distribution associated to a locally integrable function. – C. Dubussy Jul 24 '17 at 19:54
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    @WunderNatur "Finite with a certain kind of integration" You haven't specified this part. – eyeballfrog Jul 24 '17 at 19:57
  • @C.Dubussy Yes, I should have said a distribution. As far as I know, distributions are defined by integration, so my question would be is there any kind of integration to give us the delta distribution $\delta(z)$? – WunderNatur Jul 24 '17 at 20:02
  • @eyeballfrog Sorry, I should have mentioned that this is part of my question. – WunderNatur Jul 24 '17 at 20:04
  • @WunderNatur I was kind of hoping you would be more specific about the kind of integration you were looking for, not less. – eyeballfrog Jul 24 '17 at 20:15
  • @eyeballfrog The only kind of 1-dimensional integral on the complex plane I know is the contour integral, in which case the delta function would be $\frac{1}{z}$, but this doesn't look like the usual delta function. Therefore I am seeking an integration to give us a more familiar delta function, whose properties to be expected are mentioned above. Could you find any kind of integration to give a delta function with those properties? Or are those properties unrealizable on the complex plane? – WunderNatur Jul 24 '17 at 20:39
  • Ah, I see. I think you're missing the way that $1/z$ actually does look like the usual delta function. I'll explain below. – eyeballfrog Jul 24 '17 at 20:44
  • @eyeballfrog thanks! – WunderNatur Jul 24 '17 at 20:45

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There's two kinds of delta functions for contour integrals.

One will look like the standard sort of delta function: it has the property that $\int_Cf(z)\delta(z-z_0)dz = f(z_0)$ as long as the contour $C$ passes through the point $z_0$, and is zero otherwise.

The other is $1/(2\pi iz)$, the "delta function" with the property that $\int_C f(z) \delta(z-z_0)dz = f(z_0)$ as long as the contour $C$ is closed and $z_0$ is on the interior. But this doesn't look like the standard sort of delta function at all. What gives?

To illustrate, consider the following 2D vector field. $$ \mathbf{A}(x,y) = \frac{-y\hat{\mathbf{x}} +x\hat{\mathbf{y}}}{2\pi(x^2+y^2)} $$ You'll find that the line integral $\oint \mathbf{A}(x,y)\cdot d\boldsymbol\ell = 1$ as long as the path surrounds the origin and zero otherwise. So $\mathbf{A}(x,y)$ is acting like a delta function in the way $1/(2\pi i z)$ is. And now you might remember Stokes' theorem, and notice that $\mathrm{curl} \,\mathbf{A} = \delta(x)\delta(y)$.

So what's the analog of curl in the complex plane? Well, if we consider a holomorphic complex valued function $f(x+iy)$, then the derivative of the function is $$ \frac{df}{dz} = \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} - i\frac{\partial f}{\partial y} $$ and the Cauchy-Riemann equations require $$ \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} + i\frac{\partial f}{\partial y} = 0. $$ This last operation, the "conjugate derivative", is the curl analog. You'll find that $1/(2\pi i z)$ has zero conjugate derivative everywhere except the origin, where it's undefined. And it's undefined in just the right way so that $\int_Cdz/(2\pi iz) =1$ for all contours $C$ that surround the origin. And that's how it looks like a "standard" delta function.

eyeballfrog
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  • Thanks, this makes a lot of sense. $1=\int_{\partial \Omega}\frac{dz}{2\pi iz}=-\int_\Omega dz\wedge d\bar{z}\bar{\partial}\frac{1}{2\pi iz}$. Therefore it is $\bar{\partial}\frac{1}{2\pi iz}$ that is the delta function on the complex plane. Integrating out the $\bar{z}$ component and we will get $\delta(z)$, which is precisely $\frac{1}{2\pi iz}$. This should be the only reasonable holomorphic delta function. – WunderNatur Jul 24 '17 at 21:39
  • I'm not entirely sure the first one is well-defined (or if it is the sort of thing anyone ever cares about). There's the usual variance problem that distributions push forward from the curve to the plane, not vice versa. A more specific problem is what happens when a contour passes through $z_0$ multiple times, or is even stationary there! –  Jul 24 '17 at 22:02
  • More concretely, considering the simpler case of contours in a one-dimensional space of reals, it's clear you want $\int_{-1}^1 f(x) \delta(x) , \mathrm{d}x = \int_{[-1,1]} f(x) \delta(x) , \mathrm{d}x = f(0)$, but you surely want $\int_1^{-1} f(x) \delta(x) , \mathrm{d}x = -f(0)$ instead. –  Jul 24 '17 at 22:06
  • @Hurkyl Well I definitely think it's not the sort of thing anyone ever cares about. I was mostly just including it in a sense of completeness. That said, complex analysis usually doesn't use self-intersecting contours (otherwise the $1/(2\pi i z)$ thing is false too because it could wind around 0 multiple times), so I'm not too worried about that. Not sure what a stationary contour would look like. – eyeballfrog Jul 24 '17 at 22:50
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I want to add a third useful kind of complex delta distribution to the two mentioned by eyeballfrog. It is a 'holomorphic' version of the first $\delta$ mentioned by them, which integrates to 1 if the function passes through 0. 'holomorphic' means that it is obtained as a limit of holomorphic functions and in consequence the Cauchy integral theorem holds. The price we pay for this is that $\delta$ can't vanish everywhere away from the origin. Here is the definition: $$\delta(z) = \lim_{\lambda \rightarrow \infty} \sqrt{\lambda \over \pi} e^{-\lambda z^2}$$ This is divergent in the quadrants $|\Re z|\leq |\Im z|$ and converges to zero everywhere else. But if we have an integration contour with both endpoints in the convergent sector, we can deform the contour to pass through the origin and get $\int_C dz f(z)\delta(z) = f(0)$ if for instance the contour starts with $-|\Im z| > \Re z < 0$ and ends with $|\Im z| < \Re z > 0$ and $f$ is holomorphic.

I encountered this in Berry's paper "Faster than Fourier", and it's expanded in "Delta function expansions, complex delta functions and the steepest descent method" by Lindell.

Groo
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