To show that $$\sum\limits_{k=2}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{k}}{k^{2}} \, \left(1+\frac{1}{2}+...+\frac{1}{k}\right) \cdot \left(1+\frac{1}{2}+...+\frac{1}{k-1}\right) = \frac{3}{16}\zeta(4).$$
I came across this when trying to solve a problem from the current edition of the American Mathematical Monthly. Is there some easy way to show this? I checked numerically that this series does converge to the value of $\frac{3}{16}\zeta(4)$.
Note: An alternate form, with $H_{n}$ being the harmonic numbers, is: $$ \sum\limits_{k=2}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{k}}{k^{2}} \, H_{k} \, H_{k-1} = \frac{3}{16}\zeta(4). $$
specifically, the theorem and its corollaries under "Main Results" on page 2. My money is on manipulating the integral to give you that $H_kH_{k-1}$ combination. In particular check out the integrals that follow under equation (16) on page 7, which give the non-alternating sum version of your identity.
– Alex R. Jul 28 '17 at 20:48