I have already read one similar question on this topic but I can't use Riemann sums to prove that as instead is done here. The only thing I can use is the definition of $ln(x) = \int^x_1\frac1tdt$ and the known properties of logarithm (i.e. $ln(xy) = ln(x)+ln(y), ln(a^n) = nln(a)$) and properties of integrals.
My book is terrible about it: it just exposes this:
$2 < e < 4$, in fact $\frac12 < ln(2)$ (even this I don't get why) $< 1 = \int^2_11dt$ (for monotony of integrals) $< 2ln(2) = ln(4)$ without explaining why $\frac12 < ln(2)$ and $1 < 2ln(2)$. If you could please give me some info about this I would really love you. (mostly about $ 1 < 2ln(2) $ ).
Thanks.
