I am inexperienced when it comes to number theory (even elementary one) so do not have an idea at this moment on how to solve this one.
Let us go through some examples.
For $k=2$ we can have prime that divides $n_1^2 + n_2^2$ but that does not divide neither $n_1$ nor $n_2$. Take $n_1=3$ and $n_2=5$. That prime here is $p=17$.
For $k=3$ we can take as an example $n_1=3$ and $n_2=5$ and $n_3=7$. Then the prime is $p=83$.
For $k=4$ we can give an example $n_1=n_2=3$ and $n_3=n_4=5$. Then the prime is $p=17$.
We will not allow that our prime $p$ be equal to $2$ so we will search for counterexamples that have $p\neq 2$.
Question is:
Is it true that for every $k \in \mathbb N \setminus \{1\}$ there exist natural numbers $w_1,w_2,...w_k$ (all different from $1$) such that there is a prime $p \neq 2$ that divides $\sum_{i=1}^k w_i^2$ but does not divide any of the numbers $w_1,w_2,...w_k$?
I am not sure in my fluency of English, so when I say that "$p$ does not divide any of the numbers $w_1,w_2,...w_k$" I mean that $p$ does not divide $w_1$ and $p$ does not divide $w_2$ and ... and $p$ does not divide $w_k$.