It is already asked in Nilpotent elements in $\mathbb{Z}_n$
I could not understand following. if a is nilpotent then a $n\nmid a$, $n \vert a^{k} $ let n = $p_1^{m_1} ...p_r^{m_r}$ then how can we say $p_i \vert a$ for all i = 1 to r ???
It is already asked in Nilpotent elements in $\mathbb{Z}_n$
I could not understand following. if a is nilpotent then a $n\nmid a$, $n \vert a^{k} $ let n = $p_1^{m_1} ...p_r^{m_r}$ then how can we say $p_i \vert a$ for all i = 1 to r ???
Since $p_i\mid n$ and $n\mid a^k$ for some $k$, that means $p_i\mid a^k$ (divisibility is transitive). One well-known (and in some contexts defining) property of prime numbers is that if $p$ is prime and $p\mid xy$ for some integers $x, y$, then either $p\mid x$ or $p\mid y$.
If we apply that to $p_i\mid a^k$, we see that either $p_i$ divides $a$, or it divides $a^{k-1}$ (because $a^k = a\cdot a^{k-1}$). If $p_i\mid a$, we're done. If not, then we have $p_i\mid a^{k-1}$. We do the same thing here, and keep going, and we are eventually forced to conclude that $p_i\mid a$