It is a well-known fact that the sequence of functions $\{(1+\frac{x}{n})^n\}_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ converges pointwise to $e^x$ on $\mathbb{R}$. How to prove that this defines a uniform convergence on compact sets?
My attempt is analogous to the proof of Dini's theorem:
Let $r\in\mathbb{R}$ and let $\varepsilon\in\mathbb{R}$ be positive. For all $n\in\mathbb{N}$ we define $$ I_n=\left\{x\in [-r,r]\mid \left|e^x-\left(1+\frac{x}{n}\right)^n\right|<\varepsilon \right\}, $$ then, by continuity of the functions involved, $\{I_n\}_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ is a sequence of open sets. Such sequence is ascending (why?) and, by the pointwise convergence stated above, it covers $[-r,r]$.
By compactness, there exists $N\in\mathbb{N}$ such that $\bigcup_{n=0}^N I_n=[-r,r]$ and the conclusion easily follows.
Anyway, this method seems quite artificious. Also, hot to prove that $\{I_n\}_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ is ascending? Unfortunately, $e^x-\left(1+\frac{x}{n}\right)^n$ leads to difficult computations. Is there a more direct proof, for instance, to find that $N$?